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Bayesian HDIs for paired samples vs independent samples



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Confidence intervals for two proportions.Finding meaningful differences in a set of time measuresCrunching some data on gradesIs difference between two sets of measurements significant?What is the correct statistical language to conclude using type II error?How to group similarity samples?Does this qualify as stratified random samplingWhich statistical test to chooseBasics of Bayesian hypothesis testingHow To Interpret Two Bayesian Credible Intervals










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$begingroup$


According to Kruschke (http://www.users.csbsju.edu/~mgass/robert.pdf), if I have two different groups and collect their response times to a certain task, to determine if the two groups are significantly different I would take the difference in posteriors and examine the 95% highest density interval, and then see if it overlaps with zero (or with the ROPE). But if I had a single group contribute response times for each of two conditions, it seems that you do the same thing -- subtracting the posteriors and examining the HDI. But I thought that paired samples would afford greater statistical power, just like in frequentist statistics. Am I missing something?










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$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    According to Kruschke (http://www.users.csbsju.edu/~mgass/robert.pdf), if I have two different groups and collect their response times to a certain task, to determine if the two groups are significantly different I would take the difference in posteriors and examine the 95% highest density interval, and then see if it overlaps with zero (or with the ROPE). But if I had a single group contribute response times for each of two conditions, it seems that you do the same thing -- subtracting the posteriors and examining the HDI. But I thought that paired samples would afford greater statistical power, just like in frequentist statistics. Am I missing something?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      According to Kruschke (http://www.users.csbsju.edu/~mgass/robert.pdf), if I have two different groups and collect their response times to a certain task, to determine if the two groups are significantly different I would take the difference in posteriors and examine the 95% highest density interval, and then see if it overlaps with zero (or with the ROPE). But if I had a single group contribute response times for each of two conditions, it seems that you do the same thing -- subtracting the posteriors and examining the HDI. But I thought that paired samples would afford greater statistical power, just like in frequentist statistics. Am I missing something?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      According to Kruschke (http://www.users.csbsju.edu/~mgass/robert.pdf), if I have two different groups and collect their response times to a certain task, to determine if the two groups are significantly different I would take the difference in posteriors and examine the 95% highest density interval, and then see if it overlaps with zero (or with the ROPE). But if I had a single group contribute response times for each of two conditions, it seems that you do the same thing -- subtracting the posteriors and examining the HDI. But I thought that paired samples would afford greater statistical power, just like in frequentist statistics. Am I missing something?







      statistics bayesian






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      asked Apr 8 at 12:40









      Paul ScottiPaul Scotti

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