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Derivative of the inverse,so easy way of proving?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Proving that the derivative existsAlternative proof for differentiability of inverse function?If $f^-1$ has nowhere zero derivative, then $f$ is differentiableTrouble proving/disproving the existence of a particular derivative.one-sided continuity and one-sided derivative?Rudin's definition of derivativeCan't find mistake in proof that the derivative of a differentiable function is always continuous.Limit of a derivative of inverseTrying to understand discontinuities and domainsright derivative vs a right limit of the derivative times smallness factor










0












$begingroup$


In Spivak :" Let $F$ be a continuous one one function defined on an interval and suppose that $F$ is differentiable at $F^-1(a) $ and $neq$ 0 so $F^-1$ is differentiable at $a$"



The limit $lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)h = lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)F(F^-1(a+h))-F(F^-1(a))$.



Since the inverse of this limit has the following face:$lim_h to 0 fracF(F^-1(a+h)-F(F^-1(a) F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)$.



This limit exist? Yeah since $F^-1$ is injective so $F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a) neq 0$ for all $h$ except $=$ 0
And is continuous, so it exist and its value is $ F'(F^-1(a))$ and its inverse also exists, since I'm supposing it is different from $0$.



Is this right?










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Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$
















    0












    $begingroup$


    In Spivak :" Let $F$ be a continuous one one function defined on an interval and suppose that $F$ is differentiable at $F^-1(a) $ and $neq$ 0 so $F^-1$ is differentiable at $a$"



    The limit $lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)h = lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)F(F^-1(a+h))-F(F^-1(a))$.



    Since the inverse of this limit has the following face:$lim_h to 0 fracF(F^-1(a+h)-F(F^-1(a) F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)$.



    This limit exist? Yeah since $F^-1$ is injective so $F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a) neq 0$ for all $h$ except $=$ 0
    And is continuous, so it exist and its value is $ F'(F^-1(a))$ and its inverse also exists, since I'm supposing it is different from $0$.



    Is this right?










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      0












      0








      0


      0



      $begingroup$


      In Spivak :" Let $F$ be a continuous one one function defined on an interval and suppose that $F$ is differentiable at $F^-1(a) $ and $neq$ 0 so $F^-1$ is differentiable at $a$"



      The limit $lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)h = lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)F(F^-1(a+h))-F(F^-1(a))$.



      Since the inverse of this limit has the following face:$lim_h to 0 fracF(F^-1(a+h)-F(F^-1(a) F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)$.



      This limit exist? Yeah since $F^-1$ is injective so $F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a) neq 0$ for all $h$ except $=$ 0
      And is continuous, so it exist and its value is $ F'(F^-1(a))$ and its inverse also exists, since I'm supposing it is different from $0$.



      Is this right?










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      In Spivak :" Let $F$ be a continuous one one function defined on an interval and suppose that $F$ is differentiable at $F^-1(a) $ and $neq$ 0 so $F^-1$ is differentiable at $a$"



      The limit $lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)h = lim_h to 0 fracF^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)F(F^-1(a+h))-F(F^-1(a))$.



      Since the inverse of this limit has the following face:$lim_h to 0 fracF(F^-1(a+h)-F(F^-1(a) F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a)$.



      This limit exist? Yeah since $F^-1$ is injective so $F^-1(a+h)-F^-1(a) neq 0$ for all $h$ except $=$ 0
      And is continuous, so it exist and its value is $ F'(F^-1(a))$ and its inverse also exists, since I'm supposing it is different from $0$.



      Is this right?







      calculus






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Apr 8 at 17:41









      md2perpe

      8,48411028




      8,48411028






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      asked Apr 8 at 13:44









      JordanJordan

      185




      185




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      New contributor





      Jordan is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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