Proving/Disproving a statement about kernel and image of linear transformations The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Diagonalization of matrices and linear transformationsFind the kernel of linear transformationLinear transformations with equal matrices on different basesKernel and Image of a Linear TransformationPossible definition of the matrix representation of a linear transformation with respect to given basesFind bases of the kernel and image of T, and thus determine the rankLinear transformations - bases of kernel and imageKernel of Linear Transformations QuestionKernel and image of a matrix converting linear transformationKernel/image of a linear transformation
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Proving/Disproving a statement about kernel and image of linear transformations
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Diagonalization of matrices and linear transformationsFind the kernel of linear transformationLinear transformations with equal matrices on different basesKernel and Image of a Linear TransformationPossible definition of the matrix representation of a linear transformation with respect to given basesFind bases of the kernel and image of T, and thus determine the rankLinear transformations - bases of kernel and imageKernel of Linear Transformations QuestionKernel and image of a matrix converting linear transformationKernel/image of a linear transformation
$begingroup$
I have been following the text Linear Algebra by Larry Smith and while finding kernels of linear transformation, I discovered the following statement which I have stated in a clean way:
Claim. Let $M$ be a matrix of size $mtimes n$. Let $M^T$ denote the transpose of the matrix $M$. Let $T: mathbbR^ntomathbbR^m$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M$ and similarly let $hatT$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M^T$. Then $ker T = textSpan hatT (hate_1) , ldots , hatT (hate_m) = textIm hatT$ where $hate_1 , hate_2, ldots, hate_m$ is the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$.
I tried hard enough to prove it but I couldn't. I know the following things:
$T(x_1 , ldots , x_n ) = left( sum_j=1^n M_1j x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^n M_mj x_j right) $ and
$hatT (x_1 , ldots , x_m ) = left( sum_j=1^m M_j1 x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^m M_jn x_j right) $.
I tried to show it by double inclusion but it's bit of a huge mess. I need to solve system of linear equations and it doesn't look like the best way to do.
Can I get some hints/ideas on how to prove this?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have been following the text Linear Algebra by Larry Smith and while finding kernels of linear transformation, I discovered the following statement which I have stated in a clean way:
Claim. Let $M$ be a matrix of size $mtimes n$. Let $M^T$ denote the transpose of the matrix $M$. Let $T: mathbbR^ntomathbbR^m$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M$ and similarly let $hatT$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M^T$. Then $ker T = textSpan hatT (hate_1) , ldots , hatT (hate_m) = textIm hatT$ where $hate_1 , hate_2, ldots, hate_m$ is the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$.
I tried hard enough to prove it but I couldn't. I know the following things:
$T(x_1 , ldots , x_n ) = left( sum_j=1^n M_1j x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^n M_mj x_j right) $ and
$hatT (x_1 , ldots , x_m ) = left( sum_j=1^m M_j1 x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^m M_jn x_j right) $.
I tried to show it by double inclusion but it's bit of a huge mess. I need to solve system of linear equations and it doesn't look like the best way to do.
Can I get some hints/ideas on how to prove this?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have been following the text Linear Algebra by Larry Smith and while finding kernels of linear transformation, I discovered the following statement which I have stated in a clean way:
Claim. Let $M$ be a matrix of size $mtimes n$. Let $M^T$ denote the transpose of the matrix $M$. Let $T: mathbbR^ntomathbbR^m$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M$ and similarly let $hatT$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M^T$. Then $ker T = textSpan hatT (hate_1) , ldots , hatT (hate_m) = textIm hatT$ where $hate_1 , hate_2, ldots, hate_m$ is the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$.
I tried hard enough to prove it but I couldn't. I know the following things:
$T(x_1 , ldots , x_n ) = left( sum_j=1^n M_1j x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^n M_mj x_j right) $ and
$hatT (x_1 , ldots , x_m ) = left( sum_j=1^m M_j1 x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^m M_jn x_j right) $.
I tried to show it by double inclusion but it's bit of a huge mess. I need to solve system of linear equations and it doesn't look like the best way to do.
Can I get some hints/ideas on how to prove this?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
$endgroup$
I have been following the text Linear Algebra by Larry Smith and while finding kernels of linear transformation, I discovered the following statement which I have stated in a clean way:
Claim. Let $M$ be a matrix of size $mtimes n$. Let $M^T$ denote the transpose of the matrix $M$. Let $T: mathbbR^ntomathbbR^m$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M$ and similarly let $hatT$ be the linear transformation whose matrix with respect to the standard bases is $M^T$. Then $ker T = textSpan hatT (hate_1) , ldots , hatT (hate_m) = textIm hatT$ where $hate_1 , hate_2, ldots, hate_m$ is the standard basis of $mathbbR^m$.
I tried hard enough to prove it but I couldn't. I know the following things:
$T(x_1 , ldots , x_n ) = left( sum_j=1^n M_1j x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^n M_mj x_j right) $ and
$hatT (x_1 , ldots , x_m ) = left( sum_j=1^m M_j1 x_j , ldots , sum_j=1^m M_jn x_j right) $.
I tried to show it by double inclusion but it's bit of a huge mess. I need to solve system of linear equations and it doesn't look like the best way to do.
Can I get some hints/ideas on how to prove this?
linear-algebra linear-transformations
linear-algebra linear-transformations
edited Apr 8 at 6:08
Ashish K
asked Apr 8 at 6:00
Ashish KAshish K
941614
941614
1
$begingroup$
Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16
1
1
$begingroup$
Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16
$begingroup$
Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You’ve likely had trouble proving this because the claim doesn’t hold. Let $$M=beginbmatrix1&0\0&0endbmatrix.$$ The kernel of $T$ is spanned by $(0,1)^T$, but the image of $hat T$ is spanned by $(1,0)^T$.
What is true, however, is that the kernel of $T$ is the orthogonal complement (with respect to the usual Euclidean scalar product) of the image of $hat T$. Similarly, the image of $T$ is the orthogonal complement of the kernel of $hat T$.
Put in terms of dual vector spaces, the image of $T^*:W^*to V^*$, the adjoint of a linear map $T:Vto W$, annihilates the kernel of $T$. That is, for every linear functional $mathbfalphainoperatornameim(T^*)$ and every $mathbf vinker T$, $mathbfalpha[mathbf v]=0$. Similarly, the kernel of $T^*$ annihilates the image of $T$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You’ve likely had trouble proving this because the claim doesn’t hold. Let $$M=beginbmatrix1&0\0&0endbmatrix.$$ The kernel of $T$ is spanned by $(0,1)^T$, but the image of $hat T$ is spanned by $(1,0)^T$.
What is true, however, is that the kernel of $T$ is the orthogonal complement (with respect to the usual Euclidean scalar product) of the image of $hat T$. Similarly, the image of $T$ is the orthogonal complement of the kernel of $hat T$.
Put in terms of dual vector spaces, the image of $T^*:W^*to V^*$, the adjoint of a linear map $T:Vto W$, annihilates the kernel of $T$. That is, for every linear functional $mathbfalphainoperatornameim(T^*)$ and every $mathbf vinker T$, $mathbfalpha[mathbf v]=0$. Similarly, the kernel of $T^*$ annihilates the image of $T$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You’ve likely had trouble proving this because the claim doesn’t hold. Let $$M=beginbmatrix1&0\0&0endbmatrix.$$ The kernel of $T$ is spanned by $(0,1)^T$, but the image of $hat T$ is spanned by $(1,0)^T$.
What is true, however, is that the kernel of $T$ is the orthogonal complement (with respect to the usual Euclidean scalar product) of the image of $hat T$. Similarly, the image of $T$ is the orthogonal complement of the kernel of $hat T$.
Put in terms of dual vector spaces, the image of $T^*:W^*to V^*$, the adjoint of a linear map $T:Vto W$, annihilates the kernel of $T$. That is, for every linear functional $mathbfalphainoperatornameim(T^*)$ and every $mathbf vinker T$, $mathbfalpha[mathbf v]=0$. Similarly, the kernel of $T^*$ annihilates the image of $T$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You’ve likely had trouble proving this because the claim doesn’t hold. Let $$M=beginbmatrix1&0\0&0endbmatrix.$$ The kernel of $T$ is spanned by $(0,1)^T$, but the image of $hat T$ is spanned by $(1,0)^T$.
What is true, however, is that the kernel of $T$ is the orthogonal complement (with respect to the usual Euclidean scalar product) of the image of $hat T$. Similarly, the image of $T$ is the orthogonal complement of the kernel of $hat T$.
Put in terms of dual vector spaces, the image of $T^*:W^*to V^*$, the adjoint of a linear map $T:Vto W$, annihilates the kernel of $T$. That is, for every linear functional $mathbfalphainoperatornameim(T^*)$ and every $mathbf vinker T$, $mathbfalpha[mathbf v]=0$. Similarly, the kernel of $T^*$ annihilates the image of $T$.
$endgroup$
You’ve likely had trouble proving this because the claim doesn’t hold. Let $$M=beginbmatrix1&0\0&0endbmatrix.$$ The kernel of $T$ is spanned by $(0,1)^T$, but the image of $hat T$ is spanned by $(1,0)^T$.
What is true, however, is that the kernel of $T$ is the orthogonal complement (with respect to the usual Euclidean scalar product) of the image of $hat T$. Similarly, the image of $T$ is the orthogonal complement of the kernel of $hat T$.
Put in terms of dual vector spaces, the image of $T^*:W^*to V^*$, the adjoint of a linear map $T:Vto W$, annihilates the kernel of $T$. That is, for every linear functional $mathbfalphainoperatornameim(T^*)$ and every $mathbf vinker T$, $mathbfalpha[mathbf v]=0$. Similarly, the kernel of $T^*$ annihilates the image of $T$.
edited Apr 8 at 6:18
answered Apr 8 at 6:13
amdamd
31.7k21052
31.7k21052
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Fails even for the identity matrix.
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Apr 8 at 6:16