Proof the following corollary of Fatou's Lemma The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraWhat are possible variations of the definition of $sigma$-additivity?Proving a particular function is a measureGiven continuity of measure, prove countable additivity to prove measureEquivalent conditions of Lebesgue measurable setsShow that the following is a measure on the $sigma$-algebra of Lebesgue measurable setsProve countable additivity given continuity of measureshow that the density measure is $sigma$-additive?Continuity of Probability Measures proofFrom additivity of the measure, couldn't we prove the $sigma -$additivity?Measure on a sigma-algebra with integral

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Proof the following corollary of Fatou's Lemma



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraWhat are possible variations of the definition of $sigma$-additivity?Proving a particular function is a measureGiven continuity of measure, prove countable additivity to prove measureEquivalent conditions of Lebesgue measurable setsShow that the following is a measure on the $sigma$-algebra of Lebesgue measurable setsProve countable additivity given continuity of measureshow that the density measure is $sigma$-additive?Continuity of Probability Measures proofFrom additivity of the measure, couldn't we prove the $sigma -$additivity?Measure on a sigma-algebra with integral










0












$begingroup$


For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$



given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.



I already proved:



i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$



ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$



Now I am stuck in sigma additivity



iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
    $endgroup$
    – PhoemueX
    Apr 8 at 6:46










  • $begingroup$
    I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 6:52










  • $begingroup$
    The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – lEm
    Apr 8 at 7:02










  • $begingroup$
    I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 7:08















0












$begingroup$


For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$



given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.



I already proved:



i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$



ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$



Now I am stuck in sigma additivity



iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
    $endgroup$
    – PhoemueX
    Apr 8 at 6:46










  • $begingroup$
    I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 6:52










  • $begingroup$
    The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – lEm
    Apr 8 at 7:02










  • $begingroup$
    I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 7:08













0












0








0





$begingroup$


For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$



given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.



I already proved:



i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$



ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$



Now I am stuck in sigma additivity



iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$



given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.



I already proved:



i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$



ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$



Now I am stuck in sigma additivity



iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?







real-analysis measure-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 8 at 8:03









Bernard

124k741117




124k741117










asked Apr 8 at 6:40









José MarínJosé Marín

253211




253211











  • $begingroup$
    Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
    $endgroup$
    – PhoemueX
    Apr 8 at 6:46










  • $begingroup$
    I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 6:52










  • $begingroup$
    The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – lEm
    Apr 8 at 7:02










  • $begingroup$
    I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 7:08
















  • $begingroup$
    Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
    $endgroup$
    – PhoemueX
    Apr 8 at 6:46










  • $begingroup$
    I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 6:52










  • $begingroup$
    The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – lEm
    Apr 8 at 7:02










  • $begingroup$
    I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
    $endgroup$
    – José Marín
    Apr 8 at 7:08















$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46




$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46












$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52




$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52












$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02




$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02












$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08




$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem



on



$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $



$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$



check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$



The theorem implies



$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$






share|cite|improve this answer








New contributor




ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:



    • Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.

    • For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.

    • Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.

    This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.



    Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.



    Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$




    Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Use the dominated convergence theorem
      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem



      on



      $f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $



      $int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$



      check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$



      The theorem implies



      $lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$






      share|cite|improve this answer








      New contributor




      ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      $endgroup$

















        1












        $begingroup$

        Use the dominated convergence theorem
        https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem



        on



        $f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $



        $int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$



        check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$



        The theorem implies



        $lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$






        share|cite|improve this answer








        New contributor




        ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.






        $endgroup$















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Use the dominated convergence theorem
          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem



          on



          $f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $



          $int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$



          check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$



          The theorem implies



          $lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$






          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          $endgroup$



          Use the dominated convergence theorem
          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem



          on



          $f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $



          $int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$



          check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$



          The theorem implies



          $lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$







          share|cite|improve this answer








          New contributor




          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer






          New contributor




          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          answered Apr 8 at 7:17









          ItamarShmeloItamarShmelo

          972




          972




          New contributor




          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





          New contributor





          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





















              0












              $begingroup$

              In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:



              • Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.

              • For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.

              • Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.

              This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.



              Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.



              Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$




              Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$

















                0












                $begingroup$

                In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:



                • Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.

                • For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.

                • Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.

                This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.



                Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.



                Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$




                Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:



                  • Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.

                  • For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.

                  • Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.

                  This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.



                  Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.



                  Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$




                  Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:



                  • Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.

                  • For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.

                  • Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.

                  This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.



                  Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.



                  Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$




                  Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Apr 8 at 8:15

























                  answered Apr 8 at 7:37









                  drhabdrhab

                  104k545136




                  104k545136



























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                      A weird inequality regarding integrals, limits, as well as sequence of functions. The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InA question regarding limits and integrable functionsChanging the order of $lim$ and $inf$ for point-wise converging monotonic sequence of functionsSequence of Distribution FunctionsBasic question on interchanging limits and integralsA sequence of functions $f_n$ that converges non-uniformly to $f$ but the limit of the integrals equals the integral of the limits?Is this (exotic) integral well defined and convergent (always)? and the bound correct?Sequence of differentiable,equicontinuous functionsProb. 10 (d), Chap. 6, in Baby Rudin: Holder Inequality for Improper Integrals With Infinite LimitsSuppose $f_n : [0,1]rightarrowmathbbR$ is a sequence of $C^1$ functions that converges pointwise to $f$.Suppose $f$ is a continuous function on $[a,b]$ and let $M=sup_ a leq x leq b |f(x)|$