Proof the following corollary of Fatou's Lemma The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraWhat are possible variations of the definition of $sigma$-additivity?Proving a particular function is a measureGiven continuity of measure, prove countable additivity to prove measureEquivalent conditions of Lebesgue measurable setsShow that the following is a measure on the $sigma$-algebra of Lebesgue measurable setsProve countable additivity given continuity of measureshow that the density measure is $sigma$-additive?Continuity of Probability Measures proofFrom additivity of the measure, couldn't we prove the $sigma -$additivity?Measure on a sigma-algebra with integral
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Proof the following corollary of Fatou's Lemma
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraWhat are possible variations of the definition of $sigma$-additivity?Proving a particular function is a measureGiven continuity of measure, prove countable additivity to prove measureEquivalent conditions of Lebesgue measurable setsShow that the following is a measure on the $sigma$-algebra of Lebesgue measurable setsProve countable additivity given continuity of measureshow that the density measure is $sigma$-additive?Continuity of Probability Measures proofFrom additivity of the measure, couldn't we prove the $sigma -$additivity?Measure on a sigma-algebra with integral
$begingroup$
For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$
given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.
I already proved:
i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$
ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$
Now I am stuck in sigma additivity
iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?
real-analysis measure-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$
given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.
I already proved:
i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$
ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$
Now I am stuck in sigma additivity
iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?
real-analysis measure-theory
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$
given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.
I already proved:
i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$
ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$
Now I am stuck in sigma additivity
iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?
real-analysis measure-theory
$endgroup$
For any $ f in M^+(mathbbR)$ (measurable positive functions), the function $$lambda: mathcalA rightarrow mathbbR\
mathcalA text is the set of measurable funtions$$
given by $ lambda(E) = int_Ef $ is a measure.
I already proved:
i) $lambda(emptyset) = int_emptysetf = 0$
ii) let $A subseteq B in mathcalA$ then $$f|_A le f|_B$$'
so $$ int f|_A le int f|_B $$ that is $$ lambda(A) = int_Af=int f|_A = int fX_A le int fX_B = int f|_B = int_B f = lambda(B)$$
Now I am stuck in sigma additivity
iii) let $A,B in mathcalA$ so $ lambda(Acup B) = lambda(A) +lambda(B) $ if the sets are disjoint then I think I can do it, but can we do that assumption? any help to prove this?
real-analysis measure-theory
real-analysis measure-theory
edited Apr 8 at 8:03
Bernard
124k741117
124k741117
asked Apr 8 at 6:40
José MarínJosé Marín
253211
253211
$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08
$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem
on
$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $
$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$
check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$
The theorem implies
$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:
- Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.
- For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.
- Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.
Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$
Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem
on
$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $
$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$
check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$
The theorem implies
$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem
on
$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $
$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$
check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$
The theorem implies
$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem
on
$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $
$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$
check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$
The theorem implies
$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
Use the dominated convergence theorem
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dominated_convergence_theorem
on
$f_N=fchi_A_N $ where $ A_N=bigcup_i=0^N E_i $
$int f_N = int fchi_A_N=int _bigcup_i=0^N E_if=sum_i=0^Nint_E_if$
check that it satisfies all the conditions when you take $g=f$
The theorem implies
$lim _nrightarrow inftyint f_N=lim _nrightarrow inftysum_i=0^Nint_E_if = sum_i=0^inftyint_E_if = int f$
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered Apr 8 at 7:17
ItamarShmeloItamarShmelo
972
972
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
ItamarShmelo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:
- Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.
- For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.
- Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.
Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$
Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:
- Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.
- For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.
- Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.
Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$
Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:
- Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.
- For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.
- Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.
Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$
Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$
$endgroup$
In general if $(f_n)_n$ denotes a sequence of measurable functions that all take values in $[0,infty]$ then:
- Also $f:=sum_n=1^inftyf_n$ is a properly defined measurable function that takes values in $[0,infty]$.
- For every $n$ the integral $int f_n$ is properly defined.
- Also the integral $int f$ is properly defined and satisfies $int f=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
This under the convention that for $a,bin[0,infty]$ we have $a+b:=infty$ if $inftyina,b$.
Concerning the third bullet we have $fgeqsum_n=1^mf_n$ and consequently $int fgeqintsum_n=1^mf_n=sum_n=1^mint f_n$ for every $m$ so that $int fgeqsum_n=1^inftyint f_n$.
Conversely the lemma of Fatou can be used: $$int f=intliminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mf_nleqliminf_mtoinftyintsum_n=1^mf_n=liminf_mtoinftysum_n=1^mint f_n=sum_n=1^inftyint f_n$$
Using this we find for measurable and disjoint sets $A_n$ that: $$lambdaleft(bigcup_n=1^inftyA_nright)=int fmathbf1_bigcup_n=1^inftyA_n=intsum_n=1^inftyfmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftyint fmathbf1_A_n=sum_n=1^inftylambda(A_n)$$
edited Apr 8 at 8:15
answered Apr 8 at 7:37
drhabdrhab
104k545136
104k545136
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Of course the sets are disjoint. But you need to consider countably many disjoint sets, not just two.
$endgroup$
– PhoemueX
Apr 8 at 6:46
$begingroup$
I see.. so is more complicated that I expect...
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 6:52
$begingroup$
The characteristic function on a countable disjoint union is the sum of the characteristic functions on each of the set. So what you need to show is that the integral of an infinite sum is the sum of the integrals, under certain conditions.
$endgroup$
– lEm
Apr 8 at 7:02
$begingroup$
I think that condtion is uniformly convergence... but I don't know
$endgroup$
– José Marín
Apr 8 at 7:08