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Constant coefficient operator



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How to expand $x sqrt4 - x$ to Maclaurin series?Multivariate Taylor Expansion4-th derivative of $(1+x+x^2) / (1-x+x^2) $ using Taylor polynomial for $1/(1-x)$N'th coefficient of two taylor seriesRemainder term for Maclaurin's $sin x$ expansionHow to solve Taylor series with multiple data and given point?On the solutions to an $n$-th order linear homogeneous constant coefficient ODEFind a particular coefficient of Taylor series expansionWhere is the solution $y=0$ when solving a linear homogeneous constant-coefficient $n^th$-order ODE?Taylor Series expansion in two variables with one variable fixed










0












$begingroup$


I've been trying to show that if $L$ is a constant-coefficient operator of order n, then the following equality holds:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^(k)$



where $p$ is the associated characteristic polynomial of the operator $L$ and u has n derivatives and the notation $u^(k)$ means the kth derivative. I have done the following:



Considering MacLaurin's expansion, the following is true:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^inftyfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$ and since $L$ has order n then:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$



I'm stuck here. I would appreciate your help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    Apr 8 at 6:57
















0












$begingroup$


I've been trying to show that if $L$ is a constant-coefficient operator of order n, then the following equality holds:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^(k)$



where $p$ is the associated characteristic polynomial of the operator $L$ and u has n derivatives and the notation $u^(k)$ means the kth derivative. I have done the following:



Considering MacLaurin's expansion, the following is true:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^inftyfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$ and since $L$ has order n then:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$



I'm stuck here. I would appreciate your help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    Apr 8 at 6:57














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I've been trying to show that if $L$ is a constant-coefficient operator of order n, then the following equality holds:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^(k)$



where $p$ is the associated characteristic polynomial of the operator $L$ and u has n derivatives and the notation $u^(k)$ means the kth derivative. I have done the following:



Considering MacLaurin's expansion, the following is true:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^inftyfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$ and since $L$ has order n then:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$



I'm stuck here. I would appreciate your help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I've been trying to show that if $L$ is a constant-coefficient operator of order n, then the following equality holds:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^(k)$



where $p$ is the associated characteristic polynomial of the operator $L$ and u has n derivatives and the notation $u^(k)$ means the kth derivative. I have done the following:



Considering MacLaurin's expansion, the following is true:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^inftyfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$ and since $L$ has order n then:



$L(u)=sum_k=0^nfracp^(k)(0)k!u^k$



I'm stuck here. I would appreciate your help.







real-analysis ordinary-differential-equations taylor-expansion






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Apr 8 at 6:04









SMathSMath

345




345







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    Apr 8 at 6:57













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
    $endgroup$
    – user539887
    Apr 8 at 6:57








1




1




$begingroup$
You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
$endgroup$
– user539887
Apr 8 at 6:57





$begingroup$
You don't need to use Maclaurin's expansion here. Just observe that the $k$-th coefficient in a monic polynomial equals $p^(k)(0)/k!$.
$endgroup$
– user539887
Apr 8 at 6:57











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