Multivariate polynomial functional equation The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InFunctional Equation AnalysisIndeterminate equation and functional equationFunctional Equation with ValueEasy functional equationFind all polynomial solutions of the functional equation given …Functional equation questionCauchy's functional equation with polynomialFunctional differential equationFunctional EquationFunctional Equation with Inverse

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Multivariate polynomial functional equation



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InFunctional Equation AnalysisIndeterminate equation and functional equationFunctional Equation with ValueEasy functional equationFind all polynomial solutions of the functional equation given …Functional equation questionCauchy's functional equation with polynomialFunctional differential equationFunctional EquationFunctional Equation with Inverse










4












$begingroup$


I’m having some difficulties solving the following functional equation:




Find all polynomials $P(x,y)inmathbbR[X,Y]$ for which:




  • $P(x,y)$ is homogeneous (so $exists ninmathbbN, forall x,y,tinmathbbR: P(tx,ty)=t^ncdot P(x,y)$).

  • $forall a,b,cinmathbbR: P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)=0$

  • $P(1,0)=1$




My (useful) observations:



  1. $P(x,0)=x^n$

  2. $P(0,x)=-2x^n$

  3. $P(2x,x)=0$

  4. $P(x,x)=frac-12cdot2^nx^n$

  5. $P(-x,-x)=-P(x,x)= frac12cdot2^nx^n$

  6. $P(y,x)=-P(x,y)-(x+y)^n$


When we write
$$P(x,y) = sum_i=0^na_icdot x^iy^n-i$$
These observations imply that:



  1. $a_n=1$

  2. $a_0=-2$

  3. $sum_i=0^na_i=frac-12cdot2^n$

  4. $sum_i=0^n2^ia_i=0$

Also, the fifth observation implies that $n$ is odd.




I’ve noticed that $P(x,y)=x-2y$ satisfies the conditions, but I don’t know how to prove it’s the only solution.



Can someone please give me a hint how to proceed?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question has an open bounty worth +100
reputation from Sil ending ending at 2019-04-17 19:06:05Z">in 6 days.


This question has not received enough attention.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    2 days ago
















4












$begingroup$


I’m having some difficulties solving the following functional equation:




Find all polynomials $P(x,y)inmathbbR[X,Y]$ for which:




  • $P(x,y)$ is homogeneous (so $exists ninmathbbN, forall x,y,tinmathbbR: P(tx,ty)=t^ncdot P(x,y)$).

  • $forall a,b,cinmathbbR: P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)=0$

  • $P(1,0)=1$




My (useful) observations:



  1. $P(x,0)=x^n$

  2. $P(0,x)=-2x^n$

  3. $P(2x,x)=0$

  4. $P(x,x)=frac-12cdot2^nx^n$

  5. $P(-x,-x)=-P(x,x)= frac12cdot2^nx^n$

  6. $P(y,x)=-P(x,y)-(x+y)^n$


When we write
$$P(x,y) = sum_i=0^na_icdot x^iy^n-i$$
These observations imply that:



  1. $a_n=1$

  2. $a_0=-2$

  3. $sum_i=0^na_i=frac-12cdot2^n$

  4. $sum_i=0^n2^ia_i=0$

Also, the fifth observation implies that $n$ is odd.




I’ve noticed that $P(x,y)=x-2y$ satisfies the conditions, but I don’t know how to prove it’s the only solution.



Can someone please give me a hint how to proceed?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question has an open bounty worth +100
reputation from Sil ending ending at 2019-04-17 19:06:05Z">in 6 days.


This question has not received enough attention.











  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    2 days ago














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


I’m having some difficulties solving the following functional equation:




Find all polynomials $P(x,y)inmathbbR[X,Y]$ for which:




  • $P(x,y)$ is homogeneous (so $exists ninmathbbN, forall x,y,tinmathbbR: P(tx,ty)=t^ncdot P(x,y)$).

  • $forall a,b,cinmathbbR: P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)=0$

  • $P(1,0)=1$




My (useful) observations:



  1. $P(x,0)=x^n$

  2. $P(0,x)=-2x^n$

  3. $P(2x,x)=0$

  4. $P(x,x)=frac-12cdot2^nx^n$

  5. $P(-x,-x)=-P(x,x)= frac12cdot2^nx^n$

  6. $P(y,x)=-P(x,y)-(x+y)^n$


When we write
$$P(x,y) = sum_i=0^na_icdot x^iy^n-i$$
These observations imply that:



  1. $a_n=1$

  2. $a_0=-2$

  3. $sum_i=0^na_i=frac-12cdot2^n$

  4. $sum_i=0^n2^ia_i=0$

Also, the fifth observation implies that $n$ is odd.




I’ve noticed that $P(x,y)=x-2y$ satisfies the conditions, but I don’t know how to prove it’s the only solution.



Can someone please give me a hint how to proceed?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I’m having some difficulties solving the following functional equation:




Find all polynomials $P(x,y)inmathbbR[X,Y]$ for which:




  • $P(x,y)$ is homogeneous (so $exists ninmathbbN, forall x,y,tinmathbbR: P(tx,ty)=t^ncdot P(x,y)$).

  • $forall a,b,cinmathbbR: P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)=0$

  • $P(1,0)=1$




My (useful) observations:



  1. $P(x,0)=x^n$

  2. $P(0,x)=-2x^n$

  3. $P(2x,x)=0$

  4. $P(x,x)=frac-12cdot2^nx^n$

  5. $P(-x,-x)=-P(x,x)= frac12cdot2^nx^n$

  6. $P(y,x)=-P(x,y)-(x+y)^n$


When we write
$$P(x,y) = sum_i=0^na_icdot x^iy^n-i$$
These observations imply that:



  1. $a_n=1$

  2. $a_0=-2$

  3. $sum_i=0^na_i=frac-12cdot2^n$

  4. $sum_i=0^n2^ia_i=0$

Also, the fifth observation implies that $n$ is odd.




I’ve noticed that $P(x,y)=x-2y$ satisfies the conditions, but I don’t know how to prove it’s the only solution.



Can someone please give me a hint how to proceed?







functional-equations homogeneous-equation multivariate-polynomial






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









Sil

5,65721745




5,65721745










asked Apr 7 at 12:27









Jonas De SchouwerJonas De Schouwer

4009




4009






This question has an open bounty worth +100
reputation from Sil ending ending at 2019-04-17 19:06:05Z">in 6 days.


This question has not received enough attention.








This question has an open bounty worth +100
reputation from Sil ending ending at 2019-04-17 19:06:05Z">in 6 days.


This question has not received enough attention.









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    2 days ago













  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    2 days ago








1




1




$begingroup$
$P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
$endgroup$
– Sil
2 days ago





$begingroup$
$P(x,y)=(x-2y)(x+y)^n-1$ are solutions - but I found this experimentally only
$endgroup$
– Sil
2 days ago











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

As you ask for a hint, here are two hints to help you along. Below is a sketch of a full proof. Let me know when I can 'unhide' all the hidden text to make the answer more legible for future readers.



Hint 1:




For all $a,binBbbR$ find $cinBbbR$ such that the second identity becomes of the form
$$P(u,-u)+P(v,-v)+P(w,-w)=0.$$




Hint 2:




Deduce that if $degP>1$ then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$.





Full solution: The polynomials that satisfy the conditions are precisely the polynomials
$$(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n,$$
with $ninBbbN$. It is not hard to verify that these polynomials satisfy the conditions. Showing that there are no other solutions is more work. Below is a proof is by induction on the degree.



Observation 1: The unique solution $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ with $deg Pleq1$ is $P=X-2Y$.



Proof.
There are no constant solutions, and for $n=1$ setting $P=uX+vY$ shows that
$$(2u+v)(a+b+c)=0,$$
holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$,
and together with $P(1,0)=1$ this implies $P=X-2Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Observation 2: If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$ then $X+Y$ divides $P$.



Proof. Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$. Plugging in $c=-a-b$ shows that for all $a,binBbbR$ we have
$$0=P(a+b,-a-b)+P(-a,a)+P(-b,b)=((a+b)^n+(-a)^n+(-b)^n)P(1,-1),$$
which implies that $P(1,-1)=0$ because $n>1$, and hence that $P(X,-X)=0$.
This means $P$ is divisible $X+Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Proof of full solution. Now we can prove by induction that for all $ninBbbN$ we have




If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+1$ then $P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n$.




The base case $n=0$ is covered by observation 1. So let $ninBbbN$ and suppose that the statement above holds for $n$.



Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+2$. Then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$ by observation 2, which means there exists $QinBbbR[X,Y]$ such that $P=(X+Y)Q$. Then clearly $deg Q=n+1$, and we verify that $Q$ also satisfies the conditions:



  • Because $P$ and $X+Y$ are homogeneous, also $Q$ is homogeneous.

  • For all $a,b,cinBbbR$ we have
    begineqnarray*
    0&=&P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)\
    &=&(a+b+c)(Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)),
    endeqnarray*

    which shows that for all $a,b,cinBbbR$ with $a+b+cneq0$ we have
    $$Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)=0.$$
    Because $Q$ is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$.

  • Clearly $P(1,0)=1$ implies $Q(1,0)=1$.

This shows that $Q$ satisfies the conditions and $deg Q=n+1$, so by induction hypothesis
$$Q=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n
qquadtext and hence qquad
P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n+1,$$

which completes the proof by induction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    13 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    11 hours ago











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

As you ask for a hint, here are two hints to help you along. Below is a sketch of a full proof. Let me know when I can 'unhide' all the hidden text to make the answer more legible for future readers.



Hint 1:




For all $a,binBbbR$ find $cinBbbR$ such that the second identity becomes of the form
$$P(u,-u)+P(v,-v)+P(w,-w)=0.$$




Hint 2:




Deduce that if $degP>1$ then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$.





Full solution: The polynomials that satisfy the conditions are precisely the polynomials
$$(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n,$$
with $ninBbbN$. It is not hard to verify that these polynomials satisfy the conditions. Showing that there are no other solutions is more work. Below is a proof is by induction on the degree.



Observation 1: The unique solution $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ with $deg Pleq1$ is $P=X-2Y$.



Proof.
There are no constant solutions, and for $n=1$ setting $P=uX+vY$ shows that
$$(2u+v)(a+b+c)=0,$$
holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$,
and together with $P(1,0)=1$ this implies $P=X-2Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Observation 2: If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$ then $X+Y$ divides $P$.



Proof. Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$. Plugging in $c=-a-b$ shows that for all $a,binBbbR$ we have
$$0=P(a+b,-a-b)+P(-a,a)+P(-b,b)=((a+b)^n+(-a)^n+(-b)^n)P(1,-1),$$
which implies that $P(1,-1)=0$ because $n>1$, and hence that $P(X,-X)=0$.
This means $P$ is divisible $X+Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Proof of full solution. Now we can prove by induction that for all $ninBbbN$ we have




If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+1$ then $P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n$.




The base case $n=0$ is covered by observation 1. So let $ninBbbN$ and suppose that the statement above holds for $n$.



Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+2$. Then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$ by observation 2, which means there exists $QinBbbR[X,Y]$ such that $P=(X+Y)Q$. Then clearly $deg Q=n+1$, and we verify that $Q$ also satisfies the conditions:



  • Because $P$ and $X+Y$ are homogeneous, also $Q$ is homogeneous.

  • For all $a,b,cinBbbR$ we have
    begineqnarray*
    0&=&P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)\
    &=&(a+b+c)(Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)),
    endeqnarray*

    which shows that for all $a,b,cinBbbR$ with $a+b+cneq0$ we have
    $$Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)=0.$$
    Because $Q$ is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$.

  • Clearly $P(1,0)=1$ implies $Q(1,0)=1$.

This shows that $Q$ satisfies the conditions and $deg Q=n+1$, so by induction hypothesis
$$Q=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n
qquadtext and hence qquad
P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n+1,$$

which completes the proof by induction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    13 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    11 hours ago















4












$begingroup$

As you ask for a hint, here are two hints to help you along. Below is a sketch of a full proof. Let me know when I can 'unhide' all the hidden text to make the answer more legible for future readers.



Hint 1:




For all $a,binBbbR$ find $cinBbbR$ such that the second identity becomes of the form
$$P(u,-u)+P(v,-v)+P(w,-w)=0.$$




Hint 2:




Deduce that if $degP>1$ then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$.





Full solution: The polynomials that satisfy the conditions are precisely the polynomials
$$(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n,$$
with $ninBbbN$. It is not hard to verify that these polynomials satisfy the conditions. Showing that there are no other solutions is more work. Below is a proof is by induction on the degree.



Observation 1: The unique solution $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ with $deg Pleq1$ is $P=X-2Y$.



Proof.
There are no constant solutions, and for $n=1$ setting $P=uX+vY$ shows that
$$(2u+v)(a+b+c)=0,$$
holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$,
and together with $P(1,0)=1$ this implies $P=X-2Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Observation 2: If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$ then $X+Y$ divides $P$.



Proof. Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$. Plugging in $c=-a-b$ shows that for all $a,binBbbR$ we have
$$0=P(a+b,-a-b)+P(-a,a)+P(-b,b)=((a+b)^n+(-a)^n+(-b)^n)P(1,-1),$$
which implies that $P(1,-1)=0$ because $n>1$, and hence that $P(X,-X)=0$.
This means $P$ is divisible $X+Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Proof of full solution. Now we can prove by induction that for all $ninBbbN$ we have




If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+1$ then $P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n$.




The base case $n=0$ is covered by observation 1. So let $ninBbbN$ and suppose that the statement above holds for $n$.



Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+2$. Then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$ by observation 2, which means there exists $QinBbbR[X,Y]$ such that $P=(X+Y)Q$. Then clearly $deg Q=n+1$, and we verify that $Q$ also satisfies the conditions:



  • Because $P$ and $X+Y$ are homogeneous, also $Q$ is homogeneous.

  • For all $a,b,cinBbbR$ we have
    begineqnarray*
    0&=&P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)\
    &=&(a+b+c)(Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)),
    endeqnarray*

    which shows that for all $a,b,cinBbbR$ with $a+b+cneq0$ we have
    $$Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)=0.$$
    Because $Q$ is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$.

  • Clearly $P(1,0)=1$ implies $Q(1,0)=1$.

This shows that $Q$ satisfies the conditions and $deg Q=n+1$, so by induction hypothesis
$$Q=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n
qquadtext and hence qquad
P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n+1,$$

which completes the proof by induction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    13 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    11 hours ago













4












4








4





$begingroup$

As you ask for a hint, here are two hints to help you along. Below is a sketch of a full proof. Let me know when I can 'unhide' all the hidden text to make the answer more legible for future readers.



Hint 1:




For all $a,binBbbR$ find $cinBbbR$ such that the second identity becomes of the form
$$P(u,-u)+P(v,-v)+P(w,-w)=0.$$




Hint 2:




Deduce that if $degP>1$ then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$.





Full solution: The polynomials that satisfy the conditions are precisely the polynomials
$$(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n,$$
with $ninBbbN$. It is not hard to verify that these polynomials satisfy the conditions. Showing that there are no other solutions is more work. Below is a proof is by induction on the degree.



Observation 1: The unique solution $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ with $deg Pleq1$ is $P=X-2Y$.



Proof.
There are no constant solutions, and for $n=1$ setting $P=uX+vY$ shows that
$$(2u+v)(a+b+c)=0,$$
holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$,
and together with $P(1,0)=1$ this implies $P=X-2Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Observation 2: If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$ then $X+Y$ divides $P$.



Proof. Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$. Plugging in $c=-a-b$ shows that for all $a,binBbbR$ we have
$$0=P(a+b,-a-b)+P(-a,a)+P(-b,b)=((a+b)^n+(-a)^n+(-b)^n)P(1,-1),$$
which implies that $P(1,-1)=0$ because $n>1$, and hence that $P(X,-X)=0$.
This means $P$ is divisible $X+Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Proof of full solution. Now we can prove by induction that for all $ninBbbN$ we have




If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+1$ then $P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n$.




The base case $n=0$ is covered by observation 1. So let $ninBbbN$ and suppose that the statement above holds for $n$.



Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+2$. Then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$ by observation 2, which means there exists $QinBbbR[X,Y]$ such that $P=(X+Y)Q$. Then clearly $deg Q=n+1$, and we verify that $Q$ also satisfies the conditions:



  • Because $P$ and $X+Y$ are homogeneous, also $Q$ is homogeneous.

  • For all $a,b,cinBbbR$ we have
    begineqnarray*
    0&=&P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)\
    &=&(a+b+c)(Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)),
    endeqnarray*

    which shows that for all $a,b,cinBbbR$ with $a+b+cneq0$ we have
    $$Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)=0.$$
    Because $Q$ is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$.

  • Clearly $P(1,0)=1$ implies $Q(1,0)=1$.

This shows that $Q$ satisfies the conditions and $deg Q=n+1$, so by induction hypothesis
$$Q=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n
qquadtext and hence qquad
P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n+1,$$

which completes the proof by induction.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



As you ask for a hint, here are two hints to help you along. Below is a sketch of a full proof. Let me know when I can 'unhide' all the hidden text to make the answer more legible for future readers.



Hint 1:




For all $a,binBbbR$ find $cinBbbR$ such that the second identity becomes of the form
$$P(u,-u)+P(v,-v)+P(w,-w)=0.$$




Hint 2:




Deduce that if $degP>1$ then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$.





Full solution: The polynomials that satisfy the conditions are precisely the polynomials
$$(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n,$$
with $ninBbbN$. It is not hard to verify that these polynomials satisfy the conditions. Showing that there are no other solutions is more work. Below is a proof is by induction on the degree.



Observation 1: The unique solution $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ with $deg Pleq1$ is $P=X-2Y$.



Proof.
There are no constant solutions, and for $n=1$ setting $P=uX+vY$ shows that
$$(2u+v)(a+b+c)=0,$$
holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$,
and together with $P(1,0)=1$ this implies $P=X-2Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Observation 2: If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$ then $X+Y$ divides $P$.



Proof. Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P>1$. Plugging in $c=-a-b$ shows that for all $a,binBbbR$ we have
$$0=P(a+b,-a-b)+P(-a,a)+P(-b,b)=((a+b)^n+(-a)^n+(-b)^n)P(1,-1),$$
which implies that $P(1,-1)=0$ because $n>1$, and hence that $P(X,-X)=0$.
This means $P$ is divisible $X+Y$.$hspace10ptsquare$



Proof of full solution. Now we can prove by induction that for all $ninBbbN$ we have




If $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+1$ then $P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n$.




The base case $n=0$ is covered by observation 1. So let $ninBbbN$ and suppose that the statement above holds for $n$.



Suppose $PinBbbR[X,Y]$ satisfies the conditions and $deg P=n+2$. Then $P$ is divisible by $X+Y$ by observation 2, which means there exists $QinBbbR[X,Y]$ such that $P=(X+Y)Q$. Then clearly $deg Q=n+1$, and we verify that $Q$ also satisfies the conditions:



  • Because $P$ and $X+Y$ are homogeneous, also $Q$ is homogeneous.

  • For all $a,b,cinBbbR$ we have
    begineqnarray*
    0&=&P(a+b,c)+P(b+c,a)+P(c+a,b)\
    &=&(a+b+c)(Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)),
    endeqnarray*

    which shows that for all $a,b,cinBbbR$ with $a+b+cneq0$ we have
    $$Q(a+b,c)+Q(b+c,a)+Q(c+a,b)=0.$$
    Because $Q$ is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all $a,b,cinBbbR$.

  • Clearly $P(1,0)=1$ implies $Q(1,0)=1$.

This shows that $Q$ satisfies the conditions and $deg Q=n+1$, so by induction hypothesis
$$Q=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n
qquadtext and hence qquad
P=(X-2Y)(X+Y)^n+1,$$

which completes the proof by induction.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 12 hours ago

























answered 21 hours ago









ServaesServaes

30.5k342101




30.5k342101







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    13 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    11 hours ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    13 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago











  • $begingroup$
    @JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    12 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
    $endgroup$
    – Jonas De Schouwer
    11 hours ago







1




1




$begingroup$
Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
$endgroup$
– Jonas De Schouwer
13 hours ago




$begingroup$
Thanks for the answer! However, there are no solutions for n=0 (P(x,y)=0 doesn’t meet the condition P(1,0)=1). Also, how would you explain your inductory argument?
$endgroup$
– Jonas De Schouwer
13 hours ago












$begingroup$
@JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
$endgroup$
– Servaes
12 hours ago





$begingroup$
@JonasDeSchouwer Ah yes, good catch! I'll fix that now, and include the induction argument. Is it ok if I unhide the hidden text while I'm at it?
$endgroup$
– Servaes
12 hours ago













$begingroup$
@JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
12 hours ago




$begingroup$
@JonasDeSchouwer I have added a full proof, with the structure of the induction proof made more explicit.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
12 hours ago












$begingroup$
Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
$endgroup$
– Jonas De Schouwer
11 hours ago




$begingroup$
Thanks! It missed this when I tried to solve the problem: “Because Q is a polynomial, it follows that this holds for all a,b,c in R.
$endgroup$
– Jonas De Schouwer
11 hours ago

















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