Where is $|a| = sqrtlangle a$ coming from? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InHow to find all the inner products that satisfy $langle u_1,u_1 rangle=1$ $langle u_2,u_2 rangle=1$? where $B:=u_1,u_2$ is a basisInner product space problemDual spaces and inner productI see some contradiction in the definition of orthogonal vectorsRelationship between inner product and norm$langle x+y,x-yrangle=0$Uniqueness (or not) of an inner product on some vector spaceProve: $langle p, vrangle = |p|^2$The Hilbert Projection Theorem, without an inner product?$V$ is a inner product space, prove $langle av, vrangle langle v, avrangle le langle av, avrangle $

What do I do when my TA workload is more than expected?

Loose spokes after only a few rides

Is an up-to-date browser secure on an out-of-date OS?

writing variables above the numbers in tikz picture

Geography at the pixel level

What is the motivation for a law requiring 2 parties to consent for recording a conversation

Can a flute soloist sit?

Can you cast a spell on someone in the Ethereal Plane, if you are on the Material Plane and have the True Seeing spell active?

Can there be female White Walkers?

How did passengers keep warm on sail ships?

Why does the nucleus not repel itself?

How to translate "being like"?

Why isn't the circumferential light around the M87 black hole's event horizon symmetric?

Mathematics of imaging the black hole

Is it okay to consider publishing in my first year of PhD?

How can I add encounters in the Lost Mine of Phandelver campaign without giving PCs too much XP?

Deal with toxic manager when you can't quit

Getting crown tickets for Statue of Liberty

How to charge AirPods to keep battery healthy?

Is Cinnamon a desktop environment or a window manager? (Or both?)

How to display lines in a file like ls displays files in a directory?

APIPA and LAN Broadcast Domain

Kerning for subscripts of sigma?

How to obtain a position of last non-zero element



Where is $|a| = sqrtarangle$ coming from?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InHow to find all the inner products that satisfy $langle u_1,u_1 rangle=1$ $langle u_2,u_2 rangle=1$? where $B:=u_1,u_2$ is a basisInner product space problemDual spaces and inner productI see some contradiction in the definition of orthogonal vectorsRelationship between inner product and norm$langle x+y,x-yrangle=0$Uniqueness (or not) of an inner product on some vector spaceProve: $langle p, vrangle = |p|^2$The Hilbert Projection Theorem, without an inner product?$V$ is a inner product space, prove $langle av, vrangle langle v, avrangle le langle av, avrangle $










1












$begingroup$


I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
















1












$begingroup$


I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:28














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.



Thank you










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.



Thank you







vector-spaces inner-product-space






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 29 '17 at 9:07









José Carlos Santos

174k23133242




174k23133242










asked Jul 29 '17 at 9:02









JD_PMJD_PM

18711




18711







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:28













  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
    $endgroup$
    – Pedro Tamaroff
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:04










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:11










  • $begingroup$
    @PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:28








2




2




$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04




$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04












$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11




$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11












$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28





$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:24










  • $begingroup$
    @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:38










  • $begingroup$
    Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:53


















1












$begingroup$

It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:



In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$



For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.



Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 10:24



















0












$begingroup$

The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$



That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.



To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.




Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:



  1. Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.

  2. Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.

  3. Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.

Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:



  1. Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.

  2. Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.

  3. Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.


Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.




Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    );
    );
    , "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader:
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    ,
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );













    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2375588%2fwhere-is-a-sqrt-langle-aa-rangle-coming-from%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:24










    • $begingroup$
      @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:53















    0












    $begingroup$

    It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:24










    • $begingroup$
      @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:53













    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Apr 7 at 21:47









    Haris Gusic

    3,546627




    3,546627










    answered Jul 29 '17 at 9:10









    José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

    174k23133242




    174k23133242











    • $begingroup$
      Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:24










    • $begingroup$
      @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
















    • $begingroup$
      Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:24










    • $begingroup$
      @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
      $endgroup$
      – José Carlos Santos
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:38










    • $begingroup$
      Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
      $endgroup$
      – JD_PM
      Jul 29 '17 at 9:53















    $begingroup$
    Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:24




    $begingroup$
    Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:24












    $begingroup$
    @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:38




    $begingroup$
    @JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:38












    $begingroup$
    Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:53




    $begingroup$
    Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
    $endgroup$
    – JD_PM
    Jul 29 '17 at 9:53











    1












    $begingroup$

    It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:



    In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
    $$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
    So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
    $$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$



    For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.



    Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
      $endgroup$
      – Surb
      Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
















    1












    $begingroup$

    It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:



    In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
    $$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
    So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
    $$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$



    For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.



    Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
      $endgroup$
      – Surb
      Jul 29 '17 at 10:24














    1












    1








    1





    $begingroup$

    It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:



    In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
    $$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
    So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
    $$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$



    For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.



    Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:



    In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
    $$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
    So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
    $$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$



    For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.



    Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jul 29 '17 at 9:57









    BernardBernard

    124k741117




    124k741117











    • $begingroup$
      I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
      $endgroup$
      – Surb
      Jul 29 '17 at 10:24

















    • $begingroup$
      I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
      $endgroup$
      – Surb
      Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
















    $begingroup$
    I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 10:24





    $begingroup$
    I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
    $endgroup$
    – Surb
    Jul 29 '17 at 10:24












    0












    $begingroup$

    The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
    $$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
    with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
    and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
    $$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$



    That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
    $$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
    This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.



    To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.




    Definition (Inner product):
    Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:



    1. Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.

    2. Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.

    3. Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.

    Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:



    1. Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.

    2. Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.

    3. Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.


    Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
    Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
    Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
    beginalign*
    |x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
    &leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
    endalign*
    We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
    $$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
    in $leqslant¹$.




    Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
    One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
    $$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
    is a norm on $ℝ^n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$

















      0












      $begingroup$

      The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
      $$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
      with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
      and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
      $$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$



      That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
      $$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
      This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.



      To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.




      Definition (Inner product):
      Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:



      1. Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.

      2. Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.

      3. Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.

      Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:



      1. Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.

      2. Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.

      3. Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.


      Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
      Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
      Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
      beginalign*
      |x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
      &leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
      endalign*
      We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
      $$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
      in $leqslant¹$.




      Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
      One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
      $$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
      is a norm on $ℝ^n$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
        $$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
        with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
        and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
        $$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$



        That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
        $$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
        This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.



        To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.




        Definition (Inner product):
        Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:



        1. Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.

        2. Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.

        3. Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.

        Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:



        1. Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.

        2. Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.

        3. Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.


        Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
        Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
        Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
        beginalign*
        |x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
        &leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
        endalign*
        We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
        $$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
        in $leqslant¹$.




        Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
        One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
        $$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
        is a norm on $ℝ^n$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
        $$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
        with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
        and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
        $$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$



        That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
        $$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
        This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.



        To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.




        Definition (Inner product):
        Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:



        1. Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.

        2. Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.

        3. Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.

        Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:



        1. Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.

        2. Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.

        3. Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.


        Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
        Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
        Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
        beginalign*
        |x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
        &leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
        endalign*
        We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
        $$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
        in $leqslant¹$.




        Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
        One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
        $$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
        is a norm on $ℝ^n$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jul 29 '17 at 10:24

























        answered Jul 29 '17 at 10:18









        P. SiehrP. Siehr

        3,1041722




        3,1041722



























            draft saved

            draft discarded
















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid


            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2375588%2fwhere-is-a-sqrt-langle-aa-rangle-coming-from%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Bosc Connection Yimello Approaching Angry The produce zaps the market. 구성 기록되다 변경...

            WordPress Information needed

            Hidroelektrana Sadržaj Povijest | Podjela hidroelektrana | Snaga dobivena u hidroelektranama | Dijelovi hidroelektrane | Uloga hidroelektrana u suvremenom svijetu | Prednosti hidroelektrana | Nedostaci hidroelektrana | Države s najvećom proizvodnjom hidro-električne energije | Deset najvećih hidroelektrana u svijetu | Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj | Izvori | Poveznice | Vanjske poveznice | Navigacijski izbornikTechnical Report, Version 2Zajedničkom poslužiteljuHidroelektranaHEP Proizvodnja d.o.o. - Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj