Where is $|a| = sqrtlangle a$ coming from? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InHow to find all the inner products that satisfy $langle u_1,u_1 rangle=1$ $langle u_2,u_2 rangle=1$? where $B:=u_1,u_2$ is a basisInner product space problemDual spaces and inner productI see some contradiction in the definition of orthogonal vectorsRelationship between inner product and norm$langle x+y,x-yrangle=0$Uniqueness (or not) of an inner product on some vector spaceProve: $langle p, vrangle = |p|^2$The Hilbert Projection Theorem, without an inner product?$V$ is a inner product space, prove $langle av, vrangle langle v, avrangle le langle av, avrangle $
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Where is $|a| = sqrtarangle$ coming from?
The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InHow to find all the inner products that satisfy $langle u_1,u_1 rangle=1$ $langle u_2,u_2 rangle=1$? where $B:=u_1,u_2$ is a basisInner product space problemDual spaces and inner productI see some contradiction in the definition of orthogonal vectorsRelationship between inner product and norm$langle x+y,x-yrangle=0$Uniqueness (or not) of an inner product on some vector spaceProve: $langle p, vrangle = |p|^2$The Hilbert Projection Theorem, without an inner product?$V$ is a inner product space, prove $langle av, vrangle langle v, avrangle le langle av, avrangle $
$begingroup$
I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.
Thank you
vector-spaces inner-product-space
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.
Thank you
vector-spaces inner-product-space
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.
Thank you
vector-spaces inner-product-space
$endgroup$
I know it is the norm of a vector $a$ which generalizes the length (that is what inner products bring from geometric vectors to the rest of vectors) of a vector $a$ in three-dimensional space. What I do not know is why the formula is like that.
Thank you
vector-spaces inner-product-space
vector-spaces inner-product-space
edited Jul 29 '17 at 9:07
José Carlos Santos
174k23133242
174k23133242
asked Jul 29 '17 at 9:02
JD_PMJD_PM
18711
18711
2
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
2
2
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:
In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$
For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.
Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$
That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.
To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.
Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:
- Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.
- Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.
- Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.
Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:
- Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.
- Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.
- Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.
Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.
Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.
$endgroup$
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.
$endgroup$
It comes form the fact that, given two vectors $a$ and $b$, $langle a|brangle=|a|cdot|b|cdotcostheta$, where $theta$ is the angle between them. Therefore, if $b=a$, then $theta=0$ and you get $langle a|arangle=|a|^2$.
edited Apr 7 at 21:47
Haris Gusic
3,546627
3,546627
answered Jul 29 '17 at 9:10
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
174k23133242
174k23133242
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see! So it comes from ⟨a|b⟩=∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ. So dot product can be considered as a inner product isn't it?
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:24
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
@JD_PM I dont's understand why you write “can be considered as a inner product”. The dot product in $mathbbR^3$ is an inner product.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jul 29 '17 at 9:38
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
$begingroup$
Okey, what I meant was if we could consider the dot product ∥a∥.∥b∥.cosθ as an example of inner product
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:
In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$
For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.
Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:
In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$
For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.
Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:
In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$
For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.
Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.
$endgroup$
It comes from Pythagoras' theorem:
In $mathbf R^2$ (resp. $mathbf R^3$), the usual inner product of vector $u=(x,y)$ and $u'(x',y')$ (resp. $(x,y,z)$ and $(x',y',z')$ is given by
$$langle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy',qquadlangle u, u'rangle=xx'+yy'+zz'$$
So we see the length of vector $u$, which is $sqrtx^2+y^2$ (resp. $sqrtx^2+y^2+z^2)$ by Pythagoras, can be written as
$$lVert urVert=sqrtlangle u,urangle.$$
For other vector spaces on $mathbf R$, one thus naturally turns the above property of the Euclidean inner product into a definition of the norm associated with an inner product, i.e. a definite positive bilinear form $langle ,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ on a vector space $V$.
Similarly, on $mathbf C^2$, the norm of a vector $(z, u)$ is given by the formula $lVert(z,u)rVert = z bar z+ubar u$, so for complex vector spaces, one defines the norm associated to a definite positive hermitian form by the same formula.
answered Jul 29 '17 at 9:57
BernardBernard
124k741117
124k741117
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
$begingroup$
I fully agree that Pythagoras is the key word in this question. This is also to some extend the approach described by Axler in his book (chapter 6).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$
That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.
To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.
Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:
- Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.
- Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.
- Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.
Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:
- Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.
- Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.
- Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.
Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.
Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$
That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.
To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.
Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:
- Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.
- Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.
- Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.
Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:
- Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.
- Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.
- Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.
Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.
Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$
That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.
To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.
Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:
- Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.
- Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.
- Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.
Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:
- Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.
- Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.
- Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.
Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.
Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.
$endgroup$
The definition of the inner product you get taught in school is the geometric definition of the Euclidian inner product on the Euclidian vector space $ℝ^d$, $d=2,3$.
$$langle u,vrangle = |u||v|cos(ϑ)$$
with $|u|$ being the magnitude or length of the vector,
and $ϑ$ the angle between the two vectors. That being accepted as "truth" it follows:
$$langle u,urangle=|u|²cos(0) = |u|^2.qquadqquad (star)$$
That way of introducing the dot product is fine, because it graphic. And one has an intuitive idea what magnitude and angle means. You can draw a picture with two vectors and everyone will be able to understand. Additionally that is how math was created using geometrical arguments (think about the old Greeks). Still, I feel uneasy when I am confronted with these kind of definitions. But, it is also possible to define the dot product in a different way, that was introduced later in time:
$$langle u,vrangle = sum_i=1^nu_iv_i. $$
This is called the algebraic definition of the dot product. One can show that these definitions are in fact equivalent.
To show the property $(star)$ for the algebraic definition directly is a bit more complicated. But the interesting part about the dot product is, that it is a special case of a more general object called inner product. Of course that will be more abstract, but you will understand better why $(star)$ holds.
Definition (Inner product):
Let $F$ denote either the real numbers $ℝ$ or the complex numbers $ℂ$, and let $V$ be a vector space on $F$. Then the mapping $(cdot,cdot):V×V→F$ is called inner product if it holds:
- Linearity: $(αx_1+βx_2,y) = α(x_1,y)+β(x_2,y),text for α,β∈F$.
- Symmetry: $(x,y)=overline(y,x)$.
- Definiteness: $(x,x)∈ℝ; (x,x)geqslant0; (x,x)=0 ⇒ x=0$.
Definition (Norm): Let $V$ be again a vector space on $F$. Then a mapping $|cdot|:V→ℝ$ is called norm (on $V$) if it holds:
- Definiteness: $|x|geqslant0; |x|=0 ⇔ x=0$.
- Homogeneity: $|αx|=|α||x|, α∈F$.
- Triangle Inequality: $|x+y|leqslant|x|+|y|$.
Now the cool thing about these two definitions is their connection:
Theorem: An inner product $(cdot,cdot)$ of a vector space $V$ on $F$ induces a norm by $$|x|:=(x,x)^frac12.$$
Proof: We have to prove all three properties of the norm. Definiteness and homogeneity of the norm directly follows from the definiteness and linearity of the inner product. To show the triangle inequality it is:
beginalign*
|x+y|^2 &= (x+y,x+y) = (x,x)+(x,y)+(y,x)+(y,y) \
&leqslant|x|^2+2|(x,y)|+|y|^2 leqslant¹|x|^2+2|x||y|+|y|^2=(|x|+|y|)^2.
endalign*
We used the Cauchy-Schwarz-inequality:
$$|(x,y)|^2leqslant(x,x)(y,y),$$
in $leqslant¹$.
Now back to the question. These two definitions and the theorem gives us cool tools that can be applied on the dot product $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ on $ℝ^n$.
One can show that the dot product is in fact an inner product. Hence, using the theorem, the following expression
$$ |u|_2:=sqrt(u,u)= sqrtsum_i=1^nu_i^2$$
is a norm on $ℝ^n$.
edited Jul 29 '17 at 10:24
answered Jul 29 '17 at 10:18
P. SiehrP. Siehr
3,1041722
3,1041722
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
Have you tried evaluating $langle a,arangle^1/2$ when $a$ is two dimensional or three dimensional? That should explain what is going on.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Jul 29 '17 at 9:04
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff It seems to me that your argument justifies the definition of the Euclidean norm but not really that of inner product and why they coincide.
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jul 29 '17 at 9:11
$begingroup$
@PedroTamaroff I did not evaluate <a,a>^1/2 What I did not know was the relationship between dot products and inner products
$endgroup$
– JD_PM
Jul 29 '17 at 9:28