If $f'(x)>0$ on $E$ , where $m(E)>0,$ then $m(f(E))>0$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InCan we have an uncountable number of isolated points?Example of a function differentiable in a point, but not continuous in a neighborhood of the point?Prove that Lebesgue measurable set is the union of a Borel measurable set and a set of Lebesgue measure zeroProblem about $G_delta$-set and $F_sigma$-setShow that the union over a collection of compact cubes in $mathbbR^n$ is Lebesgue measurableEquality of measures, symmetric intervals, compact, bounded, measurable setsDo differentiable functions preserve measure zero sets? Measurable sets?Measurable sets vs. unions of intervals.Prove that if $B = x-y : x,y in A$, where $A$ is a Borel measurable subset of $R$ with positive measureLet $m$ be Lebesgue measure and $a in R$. Suppose that $f : R to R$ is integrable, and $int_a^xf(y)dy = 0$ for all $x$. Then $f = 0$ a.e.Radon-Nykodym approach to classic result: Left-cont. nondecreasing f on $ [a,b] Rightarrow$ exists pos. Borel measure s.t. $ f(x)-f(a)=u([a,x))$A simple proof that there exixsts lebesgue measurable sets, not borel measurableRelation between two setsA measure for which Lusin's theorem fails?

Short story: child made less intelligent and less attractive

How do I free up internal storage if I don't have any apps downloaded?

Likelihood that a superbug or lethal virus could come from a landfill

Can there be female White Walkers?

Does adding complexity mean a more secure cipher?

How do you keep chess fun when your opponent constantly beats you?

What do I do when my TA workload is more than expected?

How can I have a shield and a way of attacking with a ranged weapon at the same time?

Short story: man watches girlfriend's spaceship entering a 'black hole' (?) forever

Why don't hard Brexiteers insist on a hard border to prevent illegal immigration after Brexit?

What is the motivation for a law requiring 2 parties to consent for recording a conversation

What information about me do stores get via my credit card?

Finding the area between two curves with Integrate

If I score a critical hit on an 18 or higher, what are my chances of getting a critical hit if I roll 3d20?

Output the Arecibo Message

Why can I use a list index as an indexing variable in a for loop?

For what reasons would an animal species NOT cross a *horizontal* land bridge?

Is it ethical to upload a automatically generated paper to a non peer-reviewed site as part of a larger research?

Is bread bad for ducks?

Why doesn't shell automatically fix "useless use of cat"?

Is an up-to-date browser secure on an out-of-date OS?

How to support a colleague who finds meetings extremely tiring?

Pokemon Turn Based battle (Python)

Button changing its text & action. Good or terrible?



If $f'(x)>0$ on $E$ , where $m(E)>0,$ then $m(f(E))>0$



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InCan we have an uncountable number of isolated points?Example of a function differentiable in a point, but not continuous in a neighborhood of the point?Prove that Lebesgue measurable set is the union of a Borel measurable set and a set of Lebesgue measure zeroProblem about $G_delta$-set and $F_sigma$-setShow that the union over a collection of compact cubes in $mathbbR^n$ is Lebesgue measurableEquality of measures, symmetric intervals, compact, bounded, measurable setsDo differentiable functions preserve measure zero sets? Measurable sets?Measurable sets vs. unions of intervals.Prove that if $B = x-y : x,y in A$, where $A$ is a Borel measurable subset of $R$ with positive measureLet $m$ be Lebesgue measure and $a in R$. Suppose that $f : R to R$ is integrable, and $int_a^xf(y)dy = 0$ for all $x$. Then $f = 0$ a.e.Radon-Nykodym approach to classic result: Left-cont. nondecreasing f on $ [a,b] Rightarrow$ exists pos. Borel measure s.t. $ f(x)-f(a)=u([a,x))$A simple proof that there exixsts lebesgue measurable sets, not borel measurableRelation between two setsA measure for which Lusin's theorem fails?










14












$begingroup$



Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R,$ and suppose $f$ is differentiable at every point of a measurable $Esubset mathbb R,$ with $f'>0$ on $E$.



Suppose also that $m(E)>0$ (where $m$ is Lebesgue measure).



Prove that $m(f(E))>0$.




My proof:



Since $f$ is differentiable then it's continuous and hence it preserves both compact sets and intervals.



Now since $m(E)>0$ we can find compact interval inside it (is this true or not?)
If this is true so the proof is completed.



I know that if $E$ is measurable then $E$ is either Borel set or a set of measure zero.



So here $E$ is Borel, but still not necessarily to be an interval.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
    $endgroup$
    – user384138
    Jan 7 '17 at 16:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 10 '17 at 19:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:55







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:20















14












$begingroup$



Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R,$ and suppose $f$ is differentiable at every point of a measurable $Esubset mathbb R,$ with $f'>0$ on $E$.



Suppose also that $m(E)>0$ (where $m$ is Lebesgue measure).



Prove that $m(f(E))>0$.




My proof:



Since $f$ is differentiable then it's continuous and hence it preserves both compact sets and intervals.



Now since $m(E)>0$ we can find compact interval inside it (is this true or not?)
If this is true so the proof is completed.



I know that if $E$ is measurable then $E$ is either Borel set or a set of measure zero.



So here $E$ is Borel, but still not necessarily to be an interval.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
    $endgroup$
    – user384138
    Jan 7 '17 at 16:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 10 '17 at 19:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:55







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:20













14












14








14


14



$begingroup$



Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R,$ and suppose $f$ is differentiable at every point of a measurable $Esubset mathbb R,$ with $f'>0$ on $E$.



Suppose also that $m(E)>0$ (where $m$ is Lebesgue measure).



Prove that $m(f(E))>0$.




My proof:



Since $f$ is differentiable then it's continuous and hence it preserves both compact sets and intervals.



Now since $m(E)>0$ we can find compact interval inside it (is this true or not?)
If this is true so the proof is completed.



I know that if $E$ is measurable then $E$ is either Borel set or a set of measure zero.



So here $E$ is Borel, but still not necessarily to be an interval.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R,$ and suppose $f$ is differentiable at every point of a measurable $Esubset mathbb R,$ with $f'>0$ on $E$.



Suppose also that $m(E)>0$ (where $m$ is Lebesgue measure).



Prove that $m(f(E))>0$.




My proof:



Since $f$ is differentiable then it's continuous and hence it preserves both compact sets and intervals.



Now since $m(E)>0$ we can find compact interval inside it (is this true or not?)
If this is true so the proof is completed.



I know that if $E$ is measurable then $E$ is either Borel set or a set of measure zero.



So here $E$ is Borel, but still not necessarily to be an interval.







analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 10 '17 at 19:28









zhw.

74.9k43275




74.9k43275










asked Jan 7 '17 at 16:21









Sara SuradiSara Suradi

30918




30918







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
    $endgroup$
    – user384138
    Jan 7 '17 at 16:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 10 '17 at 19:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:55







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:20












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
    $endgroup$
    – user384138
    Jan 7 '17 at 16:28






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 10 '17 at 19:29






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 11 '17 at 20:55







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:20







1




1




$begingroup$
No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
$endgroup$
– user384138
Jan 7 '17 at 16:28




$begingroup$
No, the set of irrational numbers has positive measure but doesn't contain any interval.
$endgroup$
– user384138
Jan 7 '17 at 16:28




1




1




$begingroup$
It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 10 '17 at 19:29




$begingroup$
It's not even clear that $f(E)$ is measurable from the given hypotheses.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 10 '17 at 19:29




1




1




$begingroup$
I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 11 '17 at 20:23




$begingroup$
I want to ask the OP: Is this really the problem? is this the exact wording?where does it come from?
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 11 '17 at 20:23




1




1




$begingroup$
@charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 11 '17 at 20:55





$begingroup$
@charMD can you put your solution ,thanks in advance
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 11 '17 at 20:55





1




1




$begingroup$
@zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:20




$begingroup$
@zhw. Yes I am almost sure,It's a final exam question , I will ask my prof at the beginning of next semester
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:20










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















8












$begingroup$

I will prove two points : first, in response to a comment of zhw, we check that $f(E)$ is measurable, and then that its measure is $>0$.



We recall that $m^*$ denotes here Lebesgue outer measure, defined for every subset $S subset mathbbR$. For $I$ an open interval of $mathbbR$, we note $l(I) = sup I - inf I$. Then we define $$m^*(S) = inf left sum limits_k=1^+infty l(I_k), (I_k)_k ge 1 textrm is a sequence of intervals with S subset bigcup limits_k in mathbbN^* I_k right $$



For both results, the following lemma will be needed.




Lemma : Given $f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ differentiable at any point of a set $S$, assuming that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $forall x in S, |f'(x)| le C$, then $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^*(S)$.




Proof : Let $varepsilon > 0$. We define an increasing sequence of sets $(S_n)_n ge 1$ by : $$S_n = left le (C+varepsilon)$$



Using the hypothesis $|f'|le C$, we get that $S = bigcup limits_n=1^infty S_n$. For every $n ge 1$, we can take a sequence of open intervals $(I_n,k)_k ge 1$ covering $S_n$ and such that
$sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*(I_n,k) le m^*(S_n)+varepsilon.$



Without loss of generality, we can assume that for every $n$ and $k$, $m^*(I_n,k) le frac1n$.



Then, for $n in mathbbN^*$, for all $k in mathbbN^*$, for $x,y in S_n cap I_n,k$, we have $|y-x|le frac1n$ and $x,y in S_n$, so we can write $|f(y)-f(x)| le (C+varepsilon)|y-x|le (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k)$.
Thus, for $n ge 1$, $$m^*(f(S_n)) le sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*big(f(S_n cap I_n,k) big) le sum limits_k=1^+infty (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k) le (C+varepsilon)cdot (m^*(S_n)+varepsilon)$$



Letting $n to +infty$ and then $varepsilon to 0^+$, we get $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^* (S)$.




Now we prove that $f(E)$ is measurable. Classically (see Problem about $G_delta$ and $F_delta$ sets),




Claim 1 : There exists a subset $H subset E$ which is $F_delta$ (i.e. a countable union of closed sets) such that $N=E backslash H$ is a null set.




Write $H = bigcup limits_k=1^+infty F_k$ where the $F_k$ are closed. For $k ge 1$, for all $M>0$, $[-M,M] cap F_k$ is compact and $f$ is continuous (because it is differentiable) on this set, so $f([-M,M]cap F_k)$ is closed (it is a compact set).
So for all $k$, $f(F_k) = bigcup limits_M in mathbbN^* fbig([-M,M]cap F_kbig)$ is a Borel set, so $f(H)$ is measurable.



Now we prove that $f(N)$ is a null set. For $k in mathbbN^*$, we denote $N_k = x in N, f'(x)<k $. $N_k subset N$ so $N_k$ is a null set, so $m^*(N_k)=0$ for $k ge 1$. Plus, we can use the previous lemma on $N_k$, because $0 le f' le k$ on $N_k$, so $m^* big(f(N_k) big)le 0$.
Thus $f(N_k)$ is a null set. As $f(E) = f(H) cup f(N)$, we can conclude that $$f(E) textrm is measurable.$$




Now back to the original problem : we have some measurable set $E$ with positive measure, $f$ differentiable on $E$, $f'>0$ on E. We suppose that $m big( f(E) big)=0$.



For $x in E$, $f'(x)>0$ so $fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0$ for all $y in E backslash x $ in some neighborhood of $x$. Thus
beginalign*
E & = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x > q textrm and forall y in ]q,x[, fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0 right \
& = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x in E
endalign*



because $mathbbQ$ is dense. Moreover, $E$ has positive measure and $mathbbQ$ is countable. Hence, there exists $q_0 in mathbbQ$ such that $B = left x > q_0 textrm and forall y in ]q_0,x[, f(x)>f(y) right $ has positive measure.



Plus, for $(x,y) in B^2$ with $x<y$, we have $q_0 < x <y$, so $f(y)>f(x)$. Hence $f_$ is increasing.



Finally it is a well-known fact (see Can we have an uncountable number of isolated points) that $B$ has countably many isolated points, and thus we have a measurable subset $A subset B$ such that $m(A)=m(B)>0$ and $A$ has no isolated points. Note that we also have $f_$ increasing, $f'>0$ on A, and $m big( f(A) big)=0$.



Now we just need a stronger version of our lemma :




Lemma (bis) : Given $A subset mathbbR$ with no isolated points, and $f : A rightarrow mathbbR$, we say that $f$ is differentiable at $x in A$ whenever $lim limits_t to x^neq fracf(x)-f(t)x-t$ exists, and we note $f'(x)$ the limit. Assuming that $f$ is differentiable over $A$, and that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $|f'| le C$, we have $$m^* big( f(A) big) le C cdot m^*(A)$$




Proof : the proof is exactly the same as the one we gave for the first lemma.



Finally, we denote $g = f_$. As $g$ is stricly increasing, $g^-1$ is well defined. Moreover, as $f'>0$ on $A$, it is classical (see Inverse functions and differentiation) to show that $g^-1$ is differentiable in the sense of the Lemma bis on $g(A)$. As $g(A)$ is a null set, we can use our lemma (as we did with the set $N$ - see above) to conclude that $g^-1big( g(A) big)$ is a null set, so $A$ is a null set, which is absurd.



$$textrmHence we have m big (f(E) big) > 0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:10










  • $begingroup$
    Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:11










  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    @charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Del
    Jan 13 '17 at 23:54


















2





+100







$begingroup$

You can prove this by using the following result, which you can find in V. I. Bogachev's Measure Theory book (Springer, 2007). This is Lemma 5.8.13., which I quote almost verbatim but with adapted notation:




Proposition: Let $f$ be a function on $[a,b]$ and let $A$ be the set of all points at which $f$ has a nonzero derivative. Then, for every set $Z$ of measure zero, the set $f^-1(Z) cap A$ has measure zero. In other words, $lambda circ f^-1|_A ll lambda|_A$, where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.




Here is a link to the proof given by Bogachev. It is quite unwieldy (to me, at least) and I must say I haven't gone through the details. The proof relies on Vitali's covering theorem.



Note that the proposition remains true for a function $f$ defined on all of $mathbbR$: just write $mathbbR$ as a countable almost-disjoint union of intervals and apply the proposition to the restriction of $f$ to each interval.



To solve the problem at hand, we argue by contradiction and suppose that $m(f(E)) =0$. Since $E subset f^-1(f(E))$ and $E subset A$, we have $E subset f^-1(f(E)) cap A$. Since $f(E)$ has measure $0$, the proposition implies that $f^-1(f(E)) cap A$ has measure $0$. This is a contradiction since we assumed that $m(E) >0$.



Remark: In the above we assumed that $f(E)$ is measurable. This does follow from the hypotheses. See CharMD's great answer for a proof, or alternatively Proposition 5.5.4. in Bogachev's book.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 13 '17 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
    $endgroup$
    – Dominique R.F.
    Jan 13 '17 at 16:27


















-3












$begingroup$

From $f'>0$, there exists $c>0$ such that $f'>c$. Then $$m(f(E))=int_E f' dm>int_E c dm=cint_E 1 dm=cm(E)>0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 8 '17 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    @user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
    $endgroup$
    – kayak
    Jan 15 '17 at 13:08










  • $begingroup$
    Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Mar 12 '17 at 12:12











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
);
);
, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function()
var channelOptions =
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
;
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
createEditor();
);

else
createEditor();

);

function createEditor()
StackExchange.prepareEditor(
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader:
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
,
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
);



);













draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2087653%2fif-fx0-on-e-where-me0-then-mfe0%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









8












$begingroup$

I will prove two points : first, in response to a comment of zhw, we check that $f(E)$ is measurable, and then that its measure is $>0$.



We recall that $m^*$ denotes here Lebesgue outer measure, defined for every subset $S subset mathbbR$. For $I$ an open interval of $mathbbR$, we note $l(I) = sup I - inf I$. Then we define $$m^*(S) = inf left sum limits_k=1^+infty l(I_k), (I_k)_k ge 1 textrm is a sequence of intervals with S subset bigcup limits_k in mathbbN^* I_k right $$



For both results, the following lemma will be needed.




Lemma : Given $f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ differentiable at any point of a set $S$, assuming that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $forall x in S, |f'(x)| le C$, then $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^*(S)$.




Proof : Let $varepsilon > 0$. We define an increasing sequence of sets $(S_n)_n ge 1$ by : $$S_n = left le (C+varepsilon)$$



Using the hypothesis $|f'|le C$, we get that $S = bigcup limits_n=1^infty S_n$. For every $n ge 1$, we can take a sequence of open intervals $(I_n,k)_k ge 1$ covering $S_n$ and such that
$sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*(I_n,k) le m^*(S_n)+varepsilon.$



Without loss of generality, we can assume that for every $n$ and $k$, $m^*(I_n,k) le frac1n$.



Then, for $n in mathbbN^*$, for all $k in mathbbN^*$, for $x,y in S_n cap I_n,k$, we have $|y-x|le frac1n$ and $x,y in S_n$, so we can write $|f(y)-f(x)| le (C+varepsilon)|y-x|le (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k)$.
Thus, for $n ge 1$, $$m^*(f(S_n)) le sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*big(f(S_n cap I_n,k) big) le sum limits_k=1^+infty (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k) le (C+varepsilon)cdot (m^*(S_n)+varepsilon)$$



Letting $n to +infty$ and then $varepsilon to 0^+$, we get $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^* (S)$.




Now we prove that $f(E)$ is measurable. Classically (see Problem about $G_delta$ and $F_delta$ sets),




Claim 1 : There exists a subset $H subset E$ which is $F_delta$ (i.e. a countable union of closed sets) such that $N=E backslash H$ is a null set.




Write $H = bigcup limits_k=1^+infty F_k$ where the $F_k$ are closed. For $k ge 1$, for all $M>0$, $[-M,M] cap F_k$ is compact and $f$ is continuous (because it is differentiable) on this set, so $f([-M,M]cap F_k)$ is closed (it is a compact set).
So for all $k$, $f(F_k) = bigcup limits_M in mathbbN^* fbig([-M,M]cap F_kbig)$ is a Borel set, so $f(H)$ is measurable.



Now we prove that $f(N)$ is a null set. For $k in mathbbN^*$, we denote $N_k = x in N, f'(x)<k $. $N_k subset N$ so $N_k$ is a null set, so $m^*(N_k)=0$ for $k ge 1$. Plus, we can use the previous lemma on $N_k$, because $0 le f' le k$ on $N_k$, so $m^* big(f(N_k) big)le 0$.
Thus $f(N_k)$ is a null set. As $f(E) = f(H) cup f(N)$, we can conclude that $$f(E) textrm is measurable.$$




Now back to the original problem : we have some measurable set $E$ with positive measure, $f$ differentiable on $E$, $f'>0$ on E. We suppose that $m big( f(E) big)=0$.



For $x in E$, $f'(x)>0$ so $fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0$ for all $y in E backslash x $ in some neighborhood of $x$. Thus
beginalign*
E & = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x > q textrm and forall y in ]q,x[, fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0 right \
& = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x in E
endalign*



because $mathbbQ$ is dense. Moreover, $E$ has positive measure and $mathbbQ$ is countable. Hence, there exists $q_0 in mathbbQ$ such that $B = left x > q_0 textrm and forall y in ]q_0,x[, f(x)>f(y) right $ has positive measure.



Plus, for $(x,y) in B^2$ with $x<y$, we have $q_0 < x <y$, so $f(y)>f(x)$. Hence $f_$ is increasing.



Finally it is a well-known fact (see Can we have an uncountable number of isolated points) that $B$ has countably many isolated points, and thus we have a measurable subset $A subset B$ such that $m(A)=m(B)>0$ and $A$ has no isolated points. Note that we also have $f_$ increasing, $f'>0$ on A, and $m big( f(A) big)=0$.



Now we just need a stronger version of our lemma :




Lemma (bis) : Given $A subset mathbbR$ with no isolated points, and $f : A rightarrow mathbbR$, we say that $f$ is differentiable at $x in A$ whenever $lim limits_t to x^neq fracf(x)-f(t)x-t$ exists, and we note $f'(x)$ the limit. Assuming that $f$ is differentiable over $A$, and that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $|f'| le C$, we have $$m^* big( f(A) big) le C cdot m^*(A)$$




Proof : the proof is exactly the same as the one we gave for the first lemma.



Finally, we denote $g = f_$. As $g$ is stricly increasing, $g^-1$ is well defined. Moreover, as $f'>0$ on $A$, it is classical (see Inverse functions and differentiation) to show that $g^-1$ is differentiable in the sense of the Lemma bis on $g(A)$. As $g(A)$ is a null set, we can use our lemma (as we did with the set $N$ - see above) to conclude that $g^-1big( g(A) big)$ is a null set, so $A$ is a null set, which is absurd.



$$textrmHence we have m big (f(E) big) > 0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:10










  • $begingroup$
    Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:11










  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    @charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Del
    Jan 13 '17 at 23:54















8












$begingroup$

I will prove two points : first, in response to a comment of zhw, we check that $f(E)$ is measurable, and then that its measure is $>0$.



We recall that $m^*$ denotes here Lebesgue outer measure, defined for every subset $S subset mathbbR$. For $I$ an open interval of $mathbbR$, we note $l(I) = sup I - inf I$. Then we define $$m^*(S) = inf left sum limits_k=1^+infty l(I_k), (I_k)_k ge 1 textrm is a sequence of intervals with S subset bigcup limits_k in mathbbN^* I_k right $$



For both results, the following lemma will be needed.




Lemma : Given $f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ differentiable at any point of a set $S$, assuming that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $forall x in S, |f'(x)| le C$, then $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^*(S)$.




Proof : Let $varepsilon > 0$. We define an increasing sequence of sets $(S_n)_n ge 1$ by : $$S_n = left le (C+varepsilon)$$



Using the hypothesis $|f'|le C$, we get that $S = bigcup limits_n=1^infty S_n$. For every $n ge 1$, we can take a sequence of open intervals $(I_n,k)_k ge 1$ covering $S_n$ and such that
$sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*(I_n,k) le m^*(S_n)+varepsilon.$



Without loss of generality, we can assume that for every $n$ and $k$, $m^*(I_n,k) le frac1n$.



Then, for $n in mathbbN^*$, for all $k in mathbbN^*$, for $x,y in S_n cap I_n,k$, we have $|y-x|le frac1n$ and $x,y in S_n$, so we can write $|f(y)-f(x)| le (C+varepsilon)|y-x|le (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k)$.
Thus, for $n ge 1$, $$m^*(f(S_n)) le sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*big(f(S_n cap I_n,k) big) le sum limits_k=1^+infty (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k) le (C+varepsilon)cdot (m^*(S_n)+varepsilon)$$



Letting $n to +infty$ and then $varepsilon to 0^+$, we get $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^* (S)$.




Now we prove that $f(E)$ is measurable. Classically (see Problem about $G_delta$ and $F_delta$ sets),




Claim 1 : There exists a subset $H subset E$ which is $F_delta$ (i.e. a countable union of closed sets) such that $N=E backslash H$ is a null set.




Write $H = bigcup limits_k=1^+infty F_k$ where the $F_k$ are closed. For $k ge 1$, for all $M>0$, $[-M,M] cap F_k$ is compact and $f$ is continuous (because it is differentiable) on this set, so $f([-M,M]cap F_k)$ is closed (it is a compact set).
So for all $k$, $f(F_k) = bigcup limits_M in mathbbN^* fbig([-M,M]cap F_kbig)$ is a Borel set, so $f(H)$ is measurable.



Now we prove that $f(N)$ is a null set. For $k in mathbbN^*$, we denote $N_k = x in N, f'(x)<k $. $N_k subset N$ so $N_k$ is a null set, so $m^*(N_k)=0$ for $k ge 1$. Plus, we can use the previous lemma on $N_k$, because $0 le f' le k$ on $N_k$, so $m^* big(f(N_k) big)le 0$.
Thus $f(N_k)$ is a null set. As $f(E) = f(H) cup f(N)$, we can conclude that $$f(E) textrm is measurable.$$




Now back to the original problem : we have some measurable set $E$ with positive measure, $f$ differentiable on $E$, $f'>0$ on E. We suppose that $m big( f(E) big)=0$.



For $x in E$, $f'(x)>0$ so $fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0$ for all $y in E backslash x $ in some neighborhood of $x$. Thus
beginalign*
E & = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x > q textrm and forall y in ]q,x[, fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0 right \
& = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x in E
endalign*



because $mathbbQ$ is dense. Moreover, $E$ has positive measure and $mathbbQ$ is countable. Hence, there exists $q_0 in mathbbQ$ such that $B = left x > q_0 textrm and forall y in ]q_0,x[, f(x)>f(y) right $ has positive measure.



Plus, for $(x,y) in B^2$ with $x<y$, we have $q_0 < x <y$, so $f(y)>f(x)$. Hence $f_$ is increasing.



Finally it is a well-known fact (see Can we have an uncountable number of isolated points) that $B$ has countably many isolated points, and thus we have a measurable subset $A subset B$ such that $m(A)=m(B)>0$ and $A$ has no isolated points. Note that we also have $f_$ increasing, $f'>0$ on A, and $m big( f(A) big)=0$.



Now we just need a stronger version of our lemma :




Lemma (bis) : Given $A subset mathbbR$ with no isolated points, and $f : A rightarrow mathbbR$, we say that $f$ is differentiable at $x in A$ whenever $lim limits_t to x^neq fracf(x)-f(t)x-t$ exists, and we note $f'(x)$ the limit. Assuming that $f$ is differentiable over $A$, and that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $|f'| le C$, we have $$m^* big( f(A) big) le C cdot m^*(A)$$




Proof : the proof is exactly the same as the one we gave for the first lemma.



Finally, we denote $g = f_$. As $g$ is stricly increasing, $g^-1$ is well defined. Moreover, as $f'>0$ on $A$, it is classical (see Inverse functions and differentiation) to show that $g^-1$ is differentiable in the sense of the Lemma bis on $g(A)$. As $g(A)$ is a null set, we can use our lemma (as we did with the set $N$ - see above) to conclude that $g^-1big( g(A) big)$ is a null set, so $A$ is a null set, which is absurd.



$$textrmHence we have m big (f(E) big) > 0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:10










  • $begingroup$
    Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:11










  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    @charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Del
    Jan 13 '17 at 23:54













8












8








8





$begingroup$

I will prove two points : first, in response to a comment of zhw, we check that $f(E)$ is measurable, and then that its measure is $>0$.



We recall that $m^*$ denotes here Lebesgue outer measure, defined for every subset $S subset mathbbR$. For $I$ an open interval of $mathbbR$, we note $l(I) = sup I - inf I$. Then we define $$m^*(S) = inf left sum limits_k=1^+infty l(I_k), (I_k)_k ge 1 textrm is a sequence of intervals with S subset bigcup limits_k in mathbbN^* I_k right $$



For both results, the following lemma will be needed.




Lemma : Given $f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ differentiable at any point of a set $S$, assuming that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $forall x in S, |f'(x)| le C$, then $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^*(S)$.




Proof : Let $varepsilon > 0$. We define an increasing sequence of sets $(S_n)_n ge 1$ by : $$S_n = left le (C+varepsilon)$$



Using the hypothesis $|f'|le C$, we get that $S = bigcup limits_n=1^infty S_n$. For every $n ge 1$, we can take a sequence of open intervals $(I_n,k)_k ge 1$ covering $S_n$ and such that
$sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*(I_n,k) le m^*(S_n)+varepsilon.$



Without loss of generality, we can assume that for every $n$ and $k$, $m^*(I_n,k) le frac1n$.



Then, for $n in mathbbN^*$, for all $k in mathbbN^*$, for $x,y in S_n cap I_n,k$, we have $|y-x|le frac1n$ and $x,y in S_n$, so we can write $|f(y)-f(x)| le (C+varepsilon)|y-x|le (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k)$.
Thus, for $n ge 1$, $$m^*(f(S_n)) le sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*big(f(S_n cap I_n,k) big) le sum limits_k=1^+infty (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k) le (C+varepsilon)cdot (m^*(S_n)+varepsilon)$$



Letting $n to +infty$ and then $varepsilon to 0^+$, we get $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^* (S)$.




Now we prove that $f(E)$ is measurable. Classically (see Problem about $G_delta$ and $F_delta$ sets),




Claim 1 : There exists a subset $H subset E$ which is $F_delta$ (i.e. a countable union of closed sets) such that $N=E backslash H$ is a null set.




Write $H = bigcup limits_k=1^+infty F_k$ where the $F_k$ are closed. For $k ge 1$, for all $M>0$, $[-M,M] cap F_k$ is compact and $f$ is continuous (because it is differentiable) on this set, so $f([-M,M]cap F_k)$ is closed (it is a compact set).
So for all $k$, $f(F_k) = bigcup limits_M in mathbbN^* fbig([-M,M]cap F_kbig)$ is a Borel set, so $f(H)$ is measurable.



Now we prove that $f(N)$ is a null set. For $k in mathbbN^*$, we denote $N_k = x in N, f'(x)<k $. $N_k subset N$ so $N_k$ is a null set, so $m^*(N_k)=0$ for $k ge 1$. Plus, we can use the previous lemma on $N_k$, because $0 le f' le k$ on $N_k$, so $m^* big(f(N_k) big)le 0$.
Thus $f(N_k)$ is a null set. As $f(E) = f(H) cup f(N)$, we can conclude that $$f(E) textrm is measurable.$$




Now back to the original problem : we have some measurable set $E$ with positive measure, $f$ differentiable on $E$, $f'>0$ on E. We suppose that $m big( f(E) big)=0$.



For $x in E$, $f'(x)>0$ so $fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0$ for all $y in E backslash x $ in some neighborhood of $x$. Thus
beginalign*
E & = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x > q textrm and forall y in ]q,x[, fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0 right \
& = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x in E
endalign*



because $mathbbQ$ is dense. Moreover, $E$ has positive measure and $mathbbQ$ is countable. Hence, there exists $q_0 in mathbbQ$ such that $B = left x > q_0 textrm and forall y in ]q_0,x[, f(x)>f(y) right $ has positive measure.



Plus, for $(x,y) in B^2$ with $x<y$, we have $q_0 < x <y$, so $f(y)>f(x)$. Hence $f_$ is increasing.



Finally it is a well-known fact (see Can we have an uncountable number of isolated points) that $B$ has countably many isolated points, and thus we have a measurable subset $A subset B$ such that $m(A)=m(B)>0$ and $A$ has no isolated points. Note that we also have $f_$ increasing, $f'>0$ on A, and $m big( f(A) big)=0$.



Now we just need a stronger version of our lemma :




Lemma (bis) : Given $A subset mathbbR$ with no isolated points, and $f : A rightarrow mathbbR$, we say that $f$ is differentiable at $x in A$ whenever $lim limits_t to x^neq fracf(x)-f(t)x-t$ exists, and we note $f'(x)$ the limit. Assuming that $f$ is differentiable over $A$, and that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $|f'| le C$, we have $$m^* big( f(A) big) le C cdot m^*(A)$$




Proof : the proof is exactly the same as the one we gave for the first lemma.



Finally, we denote $g = f_$. As $g$ is stricly increasing, $g^-1$ is well defined. Moreover, as $f'>0$ on $A$, it is classical (see Inverse functions and differentiation) to show that $g^-1$ is differentiable in the sense of the Lemma bis on $g(A)$. As $g(A)$ is a null set, we can use our lemma (as we did with the set $N$ - see above) to conclude that $g^-1big( g(A) big)$ is a null set, so $A$ is a null set, which is absurd.



$$textrmHence we have m big (f(E) big) > 0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



I will prove two points : first, in response to a comment of zhw, we check that $f(E)$ is measurable, and then that its measure is $>0$.



We recall that $m^*$ denotes here Lebesgue outer measure, defined for every subset $S subset mathbbR$. For $I$ an open interval of $mathbbR$, we note $l(I) = sup I - inf I$. Then we define $$m^*(S) = inf left sum limits_k=1^+infty l(I_k), (I_k)_k ge 1 textrm is a sequence of intervals with S subset bigcup limits_k in mathbbN^* I_k right $$



For both results, the following lemma will be needed.




Lemma : Given $f : mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ differentiable at any point of a set $S$, assuming that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $forall x in S, |f'(x)| le C$, then $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^*(S)$.




Proof : Let $varepsilon > 0$. We define an increasing sequence of sets $(S_n)_n ge 1$ by : $$S_n = left le (C+varepsilon)$$



Using the hypothesis $|f'|le C$, we get that $S = bigcup limits_n=1^infty S_n$. For every $n ge 1$, we can take a sequence of open intervals $(I_n,k)_k ge 1$ covering $S_n$ and such that
$sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*(I_n,k) le m^*(S_n)+varepsilon.$



Without loss of generality, we can assume that for every $n$ and $k$, $m^*(I_n,k) le frac1n$.



Then, for $n in mathbbN^*$, for all $k in mathbbN^*$, for $x,y in S_n cap I_n,k$, we have $|y-x|le frac1n$ and $x,y in S_n$, so we can write $|f(y)-f(x)| le (C+varepsilon)|y-x|le (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k)$.
Thus, for $n ge 1$, $$m^*(f(S_n)) le sum limits_k=1^+infty m^*big(f(S_n cap I_n,k) big) le sum limits_k=1^+infty (C+varepsilon)cdot m^*(I_n,k) le (C+varepsilon)cdot (m^*(S_n)+varepsilon)$$



Letting $n to +infty$ and then $varepsilon to 0^+$, we get $m^* big( f(S) big) le C cdot m^* (S)$.




Now we prove that $f(E)$ is measurable. Classically (see Problem about $G_delta$ and $F_delta$ sets),




Claim 1 : There exists a subset $H subset E$ which is $F_delta$ (i.e. a countable union of closed sets) such that $N=E backslash H$ is a null set.




Write $H = bigcup limits_k=1^+infty F_k$ where the $F_k$ are closed. For $k ge 1$, for all $M>0$, $[-M,M] cap F_k$ is compact and $f$ is continuous (because it is differentiable) on this set, so $f([-M,M]cap F_k)$ is closed (it is a compact set).
So for all $k$, $f(F_k) = bigcup limits_M in mathbbN^* fbig([-M,M]cap F_kbig)$ is a Borel set, so $f(H)$ is measurable.



Now we prove that $f(N)$ is a null set. For $k in mathbbN^*$, we denote $N_k = x in N, f'(x)<k $. $N_k subset N$ so $N_k$ is a null set, so $m^*(N_k)=0$ for $k ge 1$. Plus, we can use the previous lemma on $N_k$, because $0 le f' le k$ on $N_k$, so $m^* big(f(N_k) big)le 0$.
Thus $f(N_k)$ is a null set. As $f(E) = f(H) cup f(N)$, we can conclude that $$f(E) textrm is measurable.$$




Now back to the original problem : we have some measurable set $E$ with positive measure, $f$ differentiable on $E$, $f'>0$ on E. We suppose that $m big( f(E) big)=0$.



For $x in E$, $f'(x)>0$ so $fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0$ for all $y in E backslash x $ in some neighborhood of $x$. Thus
beginalign*
E & = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x > q textrm and forall y in ]q,x[, fracf(x)-f(y)x-y>0 right \
& = bigcup limits_q in mathbbQ left x in E
endalign*



because $mathbbQ$ is dense. Moreover, $E$ has positive measure and $mathbbQ$ is countable. Hence, there exists $q_0 in mathbbQ$ such that $B = left x > q_0 textrm and forall y in ]q_0,x[, f(x)>f(y) right $ has positive measure.



Plus, for $(x,y) in B^2$ with $x<y$, we have $q_0 < x <y$, so $f(y)>f(x)$. Hence $f_$ is increasing.



Finally it is a well-known fact (see Can we have an uncountable number of isolated points) that $B$ has countably many isolated points, and thus we have a measurable subset $A subset B$ such that $m(A)=m(B)>0$ and $A$ has no isolated points. Note that we also have $f_$ increasing, $f'>0$ on A, and $m big( f(A) big)=0$.



Now we just need a stronger version of our lemma :




Lemma (bis) : Given $A subset mathbbR$ with no isolated points, and $f : A rightarrow mathbbR$, we say that $f$ is differentiable at $x in A$ whenever $lim limits_t to x^neq fracf(x)-f(t)x-t$ exists, and we note $f'(x)$ the limit. Assuming that $f$ is differentiable over $A$, and that there exists $C ge 0$ such that $|f'| le C$, we have $$m^* big( f(A) big) le C cdot m^*(A)$$




Proof : the proof is exactly the same as the one we gave for the first lemma.



Finally, we denote $g = f_$. As $g$ is stricly increasing, $g^-1$ is well defined. Moreover, as $f'>0$ on $A$, it is classical (see Inverse functions and differentiation) to show that $g^-1$ is differentiable in the sense of the Lemma bis on $g(A)$. As $g(A)$ is a null set, we can use our lemma (as we did with the set $N$ - see above) to conclude that $g^-1big( g(A) big)$ is a null set, so $A$ is a null set, which is absurd.



$$textrmHence we have m big (f(E) big) > 0.$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Apr 7 at 22:35

























answered Jan 11 '17 at 21:54









Charles MadelineCharles Madeline

3,4501838




3,4501838







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:10










  • $begingroup$
    Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:11










  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    @charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Del
    Jan 13 '17 at 23:54












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:10










  • $begingroup$
    Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:11










  • $begingroup$
    If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 14:26










  • $begingroup$
    In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Jan 12 '17 at 16:34










  • $begingroup$
    @charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Del
    Jan 13 '17 at 23:54







1




1




$begingroup$
Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:10




$begingroup$
Thank you CharMD for your valuable answer .I follow up with your answer until the last step where you said that f^-1 is differentiable (where the result follow immediately as you proved above) so how can we guarantee differentiability of f^-1 ?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:10












$begingroup$
Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:11




$begingroup$
Also you mean at the end the set A is it self the set E :)?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 12 '17 at 14:11












$begingroup$
If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Jan 12 '17 at 14:26




$begingroup$
If $f$ is stricly monotone and that $f'(x)$ exists, with $0<f'(x)<+infty$, then $f^-1$ is differentiable at $f(x)$ with derivative $frac1f'(x)$. This can be found in various course of calculus (see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_functions_and_differentiation)
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Jan 12 '17 at 14:26












$begingroup$
In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Jan 12 '17 at 16:34




$begingroup$
In the end, I managed to use only classic tools, but still, this is not an easy question for an exam
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Jan 12 '17 at 16:34












$begingroup$
@charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
$endgroup$
– Del
Jan 13 '17 at 23:54




$begingroup$
@charMD It is not necessarily the case that $f|_A$ is increasing. Think of $f(x)=x-lfloor xrfloor$ and $A=(0,1)cup (1,2)$. However, as can be inferred following the proof in the link to the Bogachev book, there exists a subset of $A$ with positive measure on which $f$ is increasing, and from here you can apply the rest of the proof.
$endgroup$
– Del
Jan 13 '17 at 23:54











2





+100







$begingroup$

You can prove this by using the following result, which you can find in V. I. Bogachev's Measure Theory book (Springer, 2007). This is Lemma 5.8.13., which I quote almost verbatim but with adapted notation:




Proposition: Let $f$ be a function on $[a,b]$ and let $A$ be the set of all points at which $f$ has a nonzero derivative. Then, for every set $Z$ of measure zero, the set $f^-1(Z) cap A$ has measure zero. In other words, $lambda circ f^-1|_A ll lambda|_A$, where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.




Here is a link to the proof given by Bogachev. It is quite unwieldy (to me, at least) and I must say I haven't gone through the details. The proof relies on Vitali's covering theorem.



Note that the proposition remains true for a function $f$ defined on all of $mathbbR$: just write $mathbbR$ as a countable almost-disjoint union of intervals and apply the proposition to the restriction of $f$ to each interval.



To solve the problem at hand, we argue by contradiction and suppose that $m(f(E)) =0$. Since $E subset f^-1(f(E))$ and $E subset A$, we have $E subset f^-1(f(E)) cap A$. Since $f(E)$ has measure $0$, the proposition implies that $f^-1(f(E)) cap A$ has measure $0$. This is a contradiction since we assumed that $m(E) >0$.



Remark: In the above we assumed that $f(E)$ is measurable. This does follow from the hypotheses. See CharMD's great answer for a proof, or alternatively Proposition 5.5.4. in Bogachev's book.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 13 '17 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
    $endgroup$
    – Dominique R.F.
    Jan 13 '17 at 16:27















2





+100







$begingroup$

You can prove this by using the following result, which you can find in V. I. Bogachev's Measure Theory book (Springer, 2007). This is Lemma 5.8.13., which I quote almost verbatim but with adapted notation:




Proposition: Let $f$ be a function on $[a,b]$ and let $A$ be the set of all points at which $f$ has a nonzero derivative. Then, for every set $Z$ of measure zero, the set $f^-1(Z) cap A$ has measure zero. In other words, $lambda circ f^-1|_A ll lambda|_A$, where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.




Here is a link to the proof given by Bogachev. It is quite unwieldy (to me, at least) and I must say I haven't gone through the details. The proof relies on Vitali's covering theorem.



Note that the proposition remains true for a function $f$ defined on all of $mathbbR$: just write $mathbbR$ as a countable almost-disjoint union of intervals and apply the proposition to the restriction of $f$ to each interval.



To solve the problem at hand, we argue by contradiction and suppose that $m(f(E)) =0$. Since $E subset f^-1(f(E))$ and $E subset A$, we have $E subset f^-1(f(E)) cap A$. Since $f(E)$ has measure $0$, the proposition implies that $f^-1(f(E)) cap A$ has measure $0$. This is a contradiction since we assumed that $m(E) >0$.



Remark: In the above we assumed that $f(E)$ is measurable. This does follow from the hypotheses. See CharMD's great answer for a proof, or alternatively Proposition 5.5.4. in Bogachev's book.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 13 '17 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
    $endgroup$
    – Dominique R.F.
    Jan 13 '17 at 16:27













2





+100







2





+100



2




+100



$begingroup$

You can prove this by using the following result, which you can find in V. I. Bogachev's Measure Theory book (Springer, 2007). This is Lemma 5.8.13., which I quote almost verbatim but with adapted notation:




Proposition: Let $f$ be a function on $[a,b]$ and let $A$ be the set of all points at which $f$ has a nonzero derivative. Then, for every set $Z$ of measure zero, the set $f^-1(Z) cap A$ has measure zero. In other words, $lambda circ f^-1|_A ll lambda|_A$, where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.




Here is a link to the proof given by Bogachev. It is quite unwieldy (to me, at least) and I must say I haven't gone through the details. The proof relies on Vitali's covering theorem.



Note that the proposition remains true for a function $f$ defined on all of $mathbbR$: just write $mathbbR$ as a countable almost-disjoint union of intervals and apply the proposition to the restriction of $f$ to each interval.



To solve the problem at hand, we argue by contradiction and suppose that $m(f(E)) =0$. Since $E subset f^-1(f(E))$ and $E subset A$, we have $E subset f^-1(f(E)) cap A$. Since $f(E)$ has measure $0$, the proposition implies that $f^-1(f(E)) cap A$ has measure $0$. This is a contradiction since we assumed that $m(E) >0$.



Remark: In the above we assumed that $f(E)$ is measurable. This does follow from the hypotheses. See CharMD's great answer for a proof, or alternatively Proposition 5.5.4. in Bogachev's book.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



You can prove this by using the following result, which you can find in V. I. Bogachev's Measure Theory book (Springer, 2007). This is Lemma 5.8.13., which I quote almost verbatim but with adapted notation:




Proposition: Let $f$ be a function on $[a,b]$ and let $A$ be the set of all points at which $f$ has a nonzero derivative. Then, for every set $Z$ of measure zero, the set $f^-1(Z) cap A$ has measure zero. In other words, $lambda circ f^-1|_A ll lambda|_A$, where $lambda$ is Lebesgue measure.




Here is a link to the proof given by Bogachev. It is quite unwieldy (to me, at least) and I must say I haven't gone through the details. The proof relies on Vitali's covering theorem.



Note that the proposition remains true for a function $f$ defined on all of $mathbbR$: just write $mathbbR$ as a countable almost-disjoint union of intervals and apply the proposition to the restriction of $f$ to each interval.



To solve the problem at hand, we argue by contradiction and suppose that $m(f(E)) =0$. Since $E subset f^-1(f(E))$ and $E subset A$, we have $E subset f^-1(f(E)) cap A$. Since $f(E)$ has measure $0$, the proposition implies that $f^-1(f(E)) cap A$ has measure $0$. This is a contradiction since we assumed that $m(E) >0$.



Remark: In the above we assumed that $f(E)$ is measurable. This does follow from the hypotheses. See CharMD's great answer for a proof, or alternatively Proposition 5.5.4. in Bogachev's book.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21









Community

1




1










answered Jan 11 '17 at 23:17









Dominique R.F.Dominique R.F.

1,7431717




1,7431717











  • $begingroup$
    Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 13 '17 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
    $endgroup$
    – Dominique R.F.
    Jan 13 '17 at 16:27
















  • $begingroup$
    Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
    $endgroup$
    – Gabriel Romon
    Jan 13 '17 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
    $endgroup$
    – Dominique R.F.
    Jan 13 '17 at 16:27















$begingroup$
Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
$endgroup$
– Gabriel Romon
Jan 13 '17 at 12:25




$begingroup$
Have you read Bogachev in its entirety ? :D
$endgroup$
– Gabriel Romon
Jan 13 '17 at 12:25












$begingroup$
I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
$endgroup$
– Dominique R.F.
Jan 13 '17 at 16:27




$begingroup$
I haven't; just some sections here and there. I mostly use it as a reference and for the abundant exercises (about a hundred per chapter!). Why do you ask?
$endgroup$
– Dominique R.F.
Jan 13 '17 at 16:27











-3












$begingroup$

From $f'>0$, there exists $c>0$ such that $f'>c$. Then $$m(f(E))=int_E f' dm>int_E c dm=cint_E 1 dm=cm(E)>0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 8 '17 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    @user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
    $endgroup$
    – kayak
    Jan 15 '17 at 13:08










  • $begingroup$
    Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Mar 12 '17 at 12:12















-3












$begingroup$

From $f'>0$, there exists $c>0$ such that $f'>c$. Then $$m(f(E))=int_E f' dm>int_E c dm=cint_E 1 dm=cm(E)>0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 8 '17 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    @user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
    $endgroup$
    – kayak
    Jan 15 '17 at 13:08










  • $begingroup$
    Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Mar 12 '17 at 12:12













-3












-3








-3





$begingroup$

From $f'>0$, there exists $c>0$ such that $f'>c$. Then $$m(f(E))=int_E f' dm>int_E c dm=cint_E 1 dm=cm(E)>0.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



From $f'>0$, there exists $c>0$ such that $f'>c$. Then $$m(f(E))=int_E f' dm>int_E c dm=cint_E 1 dm=cm(E)>0.$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 8 '17 at 15:54









kayakkayak

588418




588418







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 8 '17 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    @user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
    $endgroup$
    – kayak
    Jan 15 '17 at 13:08










  • $begingroup$
    Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Mar 12 '17 at 12:12












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
    $endgroup$
    – Sara Suradi
    Jan 8 '17 at 16:30










  • $begingroup$
    @user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
    $endgroup$
    – kayak
    Jan 15 '17 at 13:08










  • $begingroup$
    Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
    $endgroup$
    – Charles Madeline
    Mar 12 '17 at 12:12







2




2




$begingroup$
How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 8 '17 at 16:30




$begingroup$
How does m(f(E))=∫f'. ?can you give me a reference?
$endgroup$
– Sara Suradi
Jan 8 '17 at 16:30












$begingroup$
@user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
$endgroup$
– kayak
Jan 15 '17 at 13:08




$begingroup$
@user283366 $m(f(E))=int_yin f(E)1 dy.$Substitute $y=f(x).$Then, $ m(f(E))=int_xin Ef'(x) dx$
$endgroup$
– kayak
Jan 15 '17 at 13:08












$begingroup$
Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Mar 12 '17 at 12:12




$begingroup$
Isn't the monotonicity of $f$ usually required for such a substitution ?
$endgroup$
– Charles Madeline
Mar 12 '17 at 12:12

















draft saved

draft discarded
















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid


  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2087653%2fif-fx0-on-e-where-me0-then-mfe0%23new-answer', 'question_page');

);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Bosc Connection Yimello Approaching Angry The produce zaps the market. 구성 기록되다 변경...

WordPress Information needed

Hidroelektrana Sadržaj Povijest | Podjela hidroelektrana | Snaga dobivena u hidroelektranama | Dijelovi hidroelektrane | Uloga hidroelektrana u suvremenom svijetu | Prednosti hidroelektrana | Nedostaci hidroelektrana | Države s najvećom proizvodnjom hidro-električne energije | Deset najvećih hidroelektrana u svijetu | Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj | Izvori | Poveznice | Vanjske poveznice | Navigacijski izbornikTechnical Report, Version 2Zajedničkom poslužiteljuHidroelektranaHEP Proizvodnja d.o.o. - Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj