Determining a marginal of a joint categorical distributionMarginal P.M.F and Conditional Expectation?Compute joint Probability Distribution of Three Random Variable when two joint PDFs of two r.v. are knownGiven the joint distribution of discrete random variables $x$ and $y$ , find the probability distribution of a “centred” version of $x$.Is a compact set of distributions still compact if we fix the marginal distribution?Obtaining the marginal distribution given the joint massFind joint CDF given a joint PDFMarginal distribution of joint discrete random variablesMarginal PMF from a Binomial-like PMFFind the joint distribution of $(Y_1,Y_2)$. Are $Y_1 text and Y_2$ independent?Finding entries of a joint distribution table.

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Determining a marginal of a joint categorical distribution


Marginal P.M.F and Conditional Expectation?Compute joint Probability Distribution of Three Random Variable when two joint PDFs of two r.v. are knownGiven the joint distribution of discrete random variables $x$ and $y$ , find the probability distribution of a “centred” version of $x$.Is a compact set of distributions still compact if we fix the marginal distribution?Obtaining the marginal distribution given the joint massFind joint CDF given a joint PDFMarginal distribution of joint discrete random variablesMarginal PMF from a Binomial-like PMFFind the joint distribution of $(Y_1,Y_2)$. Are $Y_1 text and Y_2$ independent?Finding entries of a joint distribution table.













1












$begingroup$


I have a set of $n$ discrete variables $mathcalA = a_1, dots, a_n $, where every $a_i in mathcalA$ can take on the values in $ 0, 1, dots, m $ and $n,m in mathbbN$. I wish to create a joint measure -- an unnormalised probability distribution -- over all joint events described by the variables and then determine a marginal probability distribution over some $a_i in mathcalA$. Each event must obey the following rule: $a_i neq a_j$, if $a_i = k$ and $k > 0.$ That is to say, multiple variables may equal zero in any event, but every non-zero value must be unique. Here is an example for $n = 3$ and $m = 2$:
beginarrayccc hline
a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & phi(a_1, a_2, a_3) \ hline
0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
0 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \
0 & 1 & 2 & 1 \
0 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
0 & 2 & 1 & 1 \
1 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
1 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
1 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
2 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
2 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
2 & 1 & 0 & 1 \ hline
& textElsewhere & & 0\ hline
endarray

I wish to create a similar joint measure for an arbitrary $n$ and $m$ and then determine the marginal distribution, $$P(a_i) = frac1K sumlimits_mathcalA - a_i phi(mathcalA) text,$$ where $$ K = sum_mathcalA phi (mathcalA) = sum_k=0^min(m, n) k! binomnk binommk $$ is a normalising constant and $mathcalA - a_i$ denotes the set difference. Quite obviously, all marginal distributions over every $a_j in mathcalA$ are equivalent, as the joint measure is symmetrical. Is it possible to find an expression for this marginal distribution, as I have done for the normalising constant?



Edit. I believe the marginal distribution is given by $$ P(a_i = 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m, n-1) k! binomn-1k binommk $$ and $$ P(a_i neq 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m-1, n-1) k! binomn-1k binomm-1k text;$$ however, I would like to show that $$sum_j=0^m P(a_i = j) = 1 text.$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have a set of $n$ discrete variables $mathcalA = a_1, dots, a_n $, where every $a_i in mathcalA$ can take on the values in $ 0, 1, dots, m $ and $n,m in mathbbN$. I wish to create a joint measure -- an unnormalised probability distribution -- over all joint events described by the variables and then determine a marginal probability distribution over some $a_i in mathcalA$. Each event must obey the following rule: $a_i neq a_j$, if $a_i = k$ and $k > 0.$ That is to say, multiple variables may equal zero in any event, but every non-zero value must be unique. Here is an example for $n = 3$ and $m = 2$:
    beginarrayccc hline
    a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & phi(a_1, a_2, a_3) \ hline
    0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
    0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
    0 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
    0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \
    0 & 1 & 2 & 1 \
    0 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
    0 & 2 & 1 & 1 \
    1 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
    1 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
    1 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
    2 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
    2 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
    2 & 1 & 0 & 1 \ hline
    & textElsewhere & & 0\ hline
    endarray

    I wish to create a similar joint measure for an arbitrary $n$ and $m$ and then determine the marginal distribution, $$P(a_i) = frac1K sumlimits_mathcalA - a_i phi(mathcalA) text,$$ where $$ K = sum_mathcalA phi (mathcalA) = sum_k=0^min(m, n) k! binomnk binommk $$ is a normalising constant and $mathcalA - a_i$ denotes the set difference. Quite obviously, all marginal distributions over every $a_j in mathcalA$ are equivalent, as the joint measure is symmetrical. Is it possible to find an expression for this marginal distribution, as I have done for the normalising constant?



    Edit. I believe the marginal distribution is given by $$ P(a_i = 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m, n-1) k! binomn-1k binommk $$ and $$ P(a_i neq 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m-1, n-1) k! binomn-1k binomm-1k text;$$ however, I would like to show that $$sum_j=0^m P(a_i = j) = 1 text.$$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I have a set of $n$ discrete variables $mathcalA = a_1, dots, a_n $, where every $a_i in mathcalA$ can take on the values in $ 0, 1, dots, m $ and $n,m in mathbbN$. I wish to create a joint measure -- an unnormalised probability distribution -- over all joint events described by the variables and then determine a marginal probability distribution over some $a_i in mathcalA$. Each event must obey the following rule: $a_i neq a_j$, if $a_i = k$ and $k > 0.$ That is to say, multiple variables may equal zero in any event, but every non-zero value must be unique. Here is an example for $n = 3$ and $m = 2$:
      beginarrayccc hline
      a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & phi(a_1, a_2, a_3) \ hline
      0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
      0 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
      0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 1 & 2 & 1 \
      0 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 2 & 1 & 1 \
      1 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      1 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
      1 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
      2 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      2 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
      2 & 1 & 0 & 1 \ hline
      & textElsewhere & & 0\ hline
      endarray

      I wish to create a similar joint measure for an arbitrary $n$ and $m$ and then determine the marginal distribution, $$P(a_i) = frac1K sumlimits_mathcalA - a_i phi(mathcalA) text,$$ where $$ K = sum_mathcalA phi (mathcalA) = sum_k=0^min(m, n) k! binomnk binommk $$ is a normalising constant and $mathcalA - a_i$ denotes the set difference. Quite obviously, all marginal distributions over every $a_j in mathcalA$ are equivalent, as the joint measure is symmetrical. Is it possible to find an expression for this marginal distribution, as I have done for the normalising constant?



      Edit. I believe the marginal distribution is given by $$ P(a_i = 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m, n-1) k! binomn-1k binommk $$ and $$ P(a_i neq 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m-1, n-1) k! binomn-1k binomm-1k text;$$ however, I would like to show that $$sum_j=0^m P(a_i = j) = 1 text.$$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have a set of $n$ discrete variables $mathcalA = a_1, dots, a_n $, where every $a_i in mathcalA$ can take on the values in $ 0, 1, dots, m $ and $n,m in mathbbN$. I wish to create a joint measure -- an unnormalised probability distribution -- over all joint events described by the variables and then determine a marginal probability distribution over some $a_i in mathcalA$. Each event must obey the following rule: $a_i neq a_j$, if $a_i = k$ and $k > 0.$ That is to say, multiple variables may equal zero in any event, but every non-zero value must be unique. Here is an example for $n = 3$ and $m = 2$:
      beginarrayccc hline
      a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & phi(a_1, a_2, a_3) \ hline
      0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
      0 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
      0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 1 & 2 & 1 \
      0 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
      0 & 2 & 1 & 1 \
      1 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      1 & 0 & 2 & 1 \
      1 & 2 & 0 & 1 \
      2 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
      2 & 0 & 1 & 1 \
      2 & 1 & 0 & 1 \ hline
      & textElsewhere & & 0\ hline
      endarray

      I wish to create a similar joint measure for an arbitrary $n$ and $m$ and then determine the marginal distribution, $$P(a_i) = frac1K sumlimits_mathcalA - a_i phi(mathcalA) text,$$ where $$ K = sum_mathcalA phi (mathcalA) = sum_k=0^min(m, n) k! binomnk binommk $$ is a normalising constant and $mathcalA - a_i$ denotes the set difference. Quite obviously, all marginal distributions over every $a_j in mathcalA$ are equivalent, as the joint measure is symmetrical. Is it possible to find an expression for this marginal distribution, as I have done for the normalising constant?



      Edit. I believe the marginal distribution is given by $$ P(a_i = 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m, n-1) k! binomn-1k binommk $$ and $$ P(a_i neq 0) = frac1K sumlimits_k=0^min(m-1, n-1) k! binomn-1k binomm-1k text;$$ however, I would like to show that $$sum_j=0^m P(a_i = j) = 1 text.$$







      probability combinatorics probability-distributions






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      edited Apr 1 at 8:26







      SCJ

















      asked Mar 31 at 17:09









      SCJSCJ

      385




      385




















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          $begingroup$

          Here's how you prove this is a probability distribution. I have removed the upper limits of the summations; this is allowed since all subsequent terms are zero.
          beginalign
          sum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
          &=P(a_i=0)+mP(a_ineq 0)
          \&=frac1K sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+mcdotfrac1Ksum_kge 0k!binomn-1kbinomm-1k.
          endalign

          Multiplying by $K$,
          beginalign
          Ksum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
          &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot mcdot binomm-1k
          \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot (k+1)binommk+1
          \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0(k+1)!binomn-1kbinommk+1
          \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 1k!binomn-1k-1binommk
          \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! left[binomn-1k+ binomn-1k-1right]binommk
          \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! binomnkbinommk
          \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomnkbinommk
          \&=K.
          endalign

          Now divide by $K$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            1












            $begingroup$

            Here's how you prove this is a probability distribution. I have removed the upper limits of the summations; this is allowed since all subsequent terms are zero.
            beginalign
            sum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
            &=P(a_i=0)+mP(a_ineq 0)
            \&=frac1K sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+mcdotfrac1Ksum_kge 0k!binomn-1kbinomm-1k.
            endalign

            Multiplying by $K$,
            beginalign
            Ksum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
            &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot mcdot binomm-1k
            \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot (k+1)binommk+1
            \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0(k+1)!binomn-1kbinommk+1
            \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 1k!binomn-1k-1binommk
            \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! left[binomn-1k+ binomn-1k-1right]binommk
            \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! binomnkbinommk
            \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomnkbinommk
            \&=K.
            endalign

            Now divide by $K$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              1












              $begingroup$

              Here's how you prove this is a probability distribution. I have removed the upper limits of the summations; this is allowed since all subsequent terms are zero.
              beginalign
              sum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
              &=P(a_i=0)+mP(a_ineq 0)
              \&=frac1K sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+mcdotfrac1Ksum_kge 0k!binomn-1kbinomm-1k.
              endalign

              Multiplying by $K$,
              beginalign
              Ksum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
              &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot mcdot binomm-1k
              \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot (k+1)binommk+1
              \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0(k+1)!binomn-1kbinommk+1
              \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 1k!binomn-1k-1binommk
              \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! left[binomn-1k+ binomn-1k-1right]binommk
              \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! binomnkbinommk
              \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomnkbinommk
              \&=K.
              endalign

              Now divide by $K$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Here's how you prove this is a probability distribution. I have removed the upper limits of the summations; this is allowed since all subsequent terms are zero.
                beginalign
                sum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
                &=P(a_i=0)+mP(a_ineq 0)
                \&=frac1K sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+mcdotfrac1Ksum_kge 0k!binomn-1kbinomm-1k.
                endalign

                Multiplying by $K$,
                beginalign
                Ksum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
                &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot mcdot binomm-1k
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot (k+1)binommk+1
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0(k+1)!binomn-1kbinommk+1
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 1k!binomn-1k-1binommk
                \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! left[binomn-1k+ binomn-1k-1right]binommk
                \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! binomnkbinommk
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomnkbinommk
                \&=K.
                endalign

                Now divide by $K$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Here's how you prove this is a probability distribution. I have removed the upper limits of the summations; this is allowed since all subsequent terms are zero.
                beginalign
                sum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
                &=P(a_i=0)+mP(a_ineq 0)
                \&=frac1K sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+mcdotfrac1Ksum_kge 0k!binomn-1kbinomm-1k.
                endalign

                Multiplying by $K$,
                beginalign
                Ksum_j=0^m P(a_i=j)
                &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot mcdot binomm-1k
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0k!binomn-1kcdot (k+1)binommk+1
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 0(k+1)!binomn-1kbinommk+1
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomn-1k binommk+sum_kge 1k!binomn-1k-1binommk
                \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! left[binomn-1k+ binomn-1k-1right]binommk
                \ &= 0!binomn-10binomm0+sum_kge 1 k! binomnkbinommk
                \ &= sum_kge 0 k! binomnkbinommk
                \&=K.
                endalign

                Now divide by $K$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 1 at 17:25









                Mike EarnestMike Earnest

                27.1k22152




                27.1k22152



























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