Convex Combinations of Measures: $mu_n implies mu$ implies $lim_x to 1^- mu_x = mu$ (weakly)?A sequence of measures on a sigma algebraConvergence of measure sequences bounded by a finite measureIf the sequence of distribution functions weakly converge, the sequence of corresponding subprobability measures converges weakly, tooweakly open subset in $M[0,1]$ (the space of finite measures on $[0,1]$)An mixed weak star convergence problemPositive Borel measures $mu_n,mu$ on $mathbbR$ with $mu_n to mu$ weak-*. Show $limsup mu_n(K) leq mu(K)$ for $K$ compactIf $mu_n+1(E) ge mu_n(E)$ and Define $mu (E):=lim_n rightarrow infty mu_n (E)$ prove that $mu$ is a measure on $beta$Convergence in total variation normCountably additive finite signed measures form a Banach Space.Variation of Jensen's inequality

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Convex Combinations of Measures: $mu_n implies mu$ implies $lim_x to 1^- mu_x = mu$ (weakly)?


A sequence of measures on a sigma algebraConvergence of measure sequences bounded by a finite measureIf the sequence of distribution functions weakly converge, the sequence of corresponding subprobability measures converges weakly, tooweakly open subset in $M[0,1]$ (the space of finite measures on $[0,1]$)An mixed weak star convergence problemPositive Borel measures $mu_n,mu$ on $mathbbR$ with $mu_n to mu$ weak-*. Show $limsup mu_n(K) leq mu(K)$ for $K$ compactIf $mu_n+1(E) ge mu_n(E)$ and Define $mu (E):=lim_n rightarrow infty mu_n (E)$ prove that $mu$ is a measure on $beta$Convergence in total variation normCountably additive finite signed measures form a Banach Space.Variation of Jensen's inequality













0












$begingroup$


Specifically, this is about Lemma 5.1 of A. M. Vershik's "Statistical mechanics of combinatorial partitions and their limit shapes," but I will ask my question in some generality.



Let $mathcalF(x):= sum_n geq 1 Q_n x^n$ for $x in [0,1)$ and $Q_n >0$.



Let $mu_n_n geq 1$ and $mu_x_x in [0,1)$ be, respectively, a discrete and continuous family of probability measures on the same space, where the $mu_x$ are defined by $$mu_x := mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n geq 1 x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ This is called a convex combination because the coefficients sum to 1.



Vershik states that, because the $mu_x$ are convex combinations, it is obvious that if the $mu_n$ have a weak limit, then the $mu_x$ have the same limit as $x to 1^-$.



Question: Why is the above true?



I can at least guess why it should maybe be true if we assume $mathcalF(1)= infty$, so $mathcalF(1)^-1=0$ (which is the case for the $mathcalF$'s in his paper).



Since $$mu_x = mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n = 1^N x^n Q_n mu_n+ mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n,$$ we have $$ lim_x to 1^- mu_x = lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ Now choosing $N$ so that the $mu_n$'s are "close" to the weak limit $mu$, the above is "roughly" $$left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n right) mu = left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1 left(mathcalF(x) - sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n right) right) mu = mu.$$



Am I on the right track?










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This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from Dzoooks ending ending at 2019-04-10 22:34:29Z">in 3 days.


This question has not received enough attention.




















    0












    $begingroup$


    Specifically, this is about Lemma 5.1 of A. M. Vershik's "Statistical mechanics of combinatorial partitions and their limit shapes," but I will ask my question in some generality.



    Let $mathcalF(x):= sum_n geq 1 Q_n x^n$ for $x in [0,1)$ and $Q_n >0$.



    Let $mu_n_n geq 1$ and $mu_x_x in [0,1)$ be, respectively, a discrete and continuous family of probability measures on the same space, where the $mu_x$ are defined by $$mu_x := mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n geq 1 x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ This is called a convex combination because the coefficients sum to 1.



    Vershik states that, because the $mu_x$ are convex combinations, it is obvious that if the $mu_n$ have a weak limit, then the $mu_x$ have the same limit as $x to 1^-$.



    Question: Why is the above true?



    I can at least guess why it should maybe be true if we assume $mathcalF(1)= infty$, so $mathcalF(1)^-1=0$ (which is the case for the $mathcalF$'s in his paper).



    Since $$mu_x = mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n = 1^N x^n Q_n mu_n+ mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n,$$ we have $$ lim_x to 1^- mu_x = lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ Now choosing $N$ so that the $mu_n$'s are "close" to the weak limit $mu$, the above is "roughly" $$left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n right) mu = left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1 left(mathcalF(x) - sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n right) right) mu = mu.$$



    Am I on the right track?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$





    This question has an open bounty worth +50
    reputation from Dzoooks ending ending at 2019-04-10 22:34:29Z">in 3 days.


    This question has not received enough attention.


















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Specifically, this is about Lemma 5.1 of A. M. Vershik's "Statistical mechanics of combinatorial partitions and their limit shapes," but I will ask my question in some generality.



      Let $mathcalF(x):= sum_n geq 1 Q_n x^n$ for $x in [0,1)$ and $Q_n >0$.



      Let $mu_n_n geq 1$ and $mu_x_x in [0,1)$ be, respectively, a discrete and continuous family of probability measures on the same space, where the $mu_x$ are defined by $$mu_x := mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n geq 1 x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ This is called a convex combination because the coefficients sum to 1.



      Vershik states that, because the $mu_x$ are convex combinations, it is obvious that if the $mu_n$ have a weak limit, then the $mu_x$ have the same limit as $x to 1^-$.



      Question: Why is the above true?



      I can at least guess why it should maybe be true if we assume $mathcalF(1)= infty$, so $mathcalF(1)^-1=0$ (which is the case for the $mathcalF$'s in his paper).



      Since $$mu_x = mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n = 1^N x^n Q_n mu_n+ mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n,$$ we have $$ lim_x to 1^- mu_x = lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ Now choosing $N$ so that the $mu_n$'s are "close" to the weak limit $mu$, the above is "roughly" $$left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n right) mu = left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1 left(mathcalF(x) - sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n right) right) mu = mu.$$



      Am I on the right track?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Specifically, this is about Lemma 5.1 of A. M. Vershik's "Statistical mechanics of combinatorial partitions and their limit shapes," but I will ask my question in some generality.



      Let $mathcalF(x):= sum_n geq 1 Q_n x^n$ for $x in [0,1)$ and $Q_n >0$.



      Let $mu_n_n geq 1$ and $mu_x_x in [0,1)$ be, respectively, a discrete and continuous family of probability measures on the same space, where the $mu_x$ are defined by $$mu_x := mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n geq 1 x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ This is called a convex combination because the coefficients sum to 1.



      Vershik states that, because the $mu_x$ are convex combinations, it is obvious that if the $mu_n$ have a weak limit, then the $mu_x$ have the same limit as $x to 1^-$.



      Question: Why is the above true?



      I can at least guess why it should maybe be true if we assume $mathcalF(1)= infty$, so $mathcalF(1)^-1=0$ (which is the case for the $mathcalF$'s in his paper).



      Since $$mu_x = mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n = 1^N x^n Q_n mu_n+ mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n,$$ we have $$ lim_x to 1^- mu_x = lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n mu_n.$$ Now choosing $N$ so that the $mu_n$'s are "close" to the weak limit $mu$, the above is "roughly" $$left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1sum_n > N x^n Q_n right) mu = left(lim_x to 1^- mathcalF(x)^-1 left(mathcalF(x) - sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n right) right) mu = mu.$$



      Am I on the right track?







      probability functional-analysis measure-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Apr 1 at 16:24









      DzoooksDzoooks

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      841417






      This question has an open bounty worth +50
      reputation from Dzoooks ending ending at 2019-04-10 22:34:29Z">in 3 days.


      This question has not received enough attention.








      This question has an open bounty worth +50
      reputation from Dzoooks ending ending at 2019-04-10 22:34:29Z">in 3 days.


      This question has not received enough attention.






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you are on the right track; you just need to apply the definition of weak convergence. You do need $mathcal F(x)toinfty.$



          A sequence of probability measures $nu_n$ converges weakly to $nu$ iff for each bounded continuous $f$ and each $epsilon>0,$ there exists $N$ such that $|int f dnu_n-int f dnu|$ for $n>N.$ We can write this as: $nu_n-nuin E$ for all sufficiently large $n,$ where $E$ is the set of finite signed measures $tau$ with $|int f dtau|leqepsilon.$
          Fix $f$ and $epsilon$ and let $E$ be as I just defined.



          We are given that $mu_n$ converges weakly to $mu.$ Applying the definition of weak convergence with $f$ and $tfrac12epsilon,$ there exists $N$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $mu_n-muintfrac12 E.$ In particular, $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n>Nx^nQ_n(mu_n-mu)intfrac12 E$$ because this is an infinitary convex combination of elements of the closed convex set $tfrac12 E.$
          Since $mathcal F(x)toinfty,$ as $xto 1^-$ we have $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in tfrac 12 E$$
          because each $Q_n(mu_n-mu)$ lies in $tfrac12Nmathcal F(x)E$ for sufficiently large $mathcal F(x).$ Summing gives
          $$mu_x-mu=mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^infty x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in E$$
          which is the definition of $mu_x$ converging weakly to $mu.$



          You might find it clearer to do everything in terms of real numbers - just replace $mu_x,mu_n,mu$ by $int f mu_x$ etc, and replace $E$ by the interval $[-epsilon,epsilon].$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex M.
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
            $endgroup$
            – Dap
            2 days ago











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you are on the right track; you just need to apply the definition of weak convergence. You do need $mathcal F(x)toinfty.$



          A sequence of probability measures $nu_n$ converges weakly to $nu$ iff for each bounded continuous $f$ and each $epsilon>0,$ there exists $N$ such that $|int f dnu_n-int f dnu|$ for $n>N.$ We can write this as: $nu_n-nuin E$ for all sufficiently large $n,$ where $E$ is the set of finite signed measures $tau$ with $|int f dtau|leqepsilon.$
          Fix $f$ and $epsilon$ and let $E$ be as I just defined.



          We are given that $mu_n$ converges weakly to $mu.$ Applying the definition of weak convergence with $f$ and $tfrac12epsilon,$ there exists $N$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $mu_n-muintfrac12 E.$ In particular, $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n>Nx^nQ_n(mu_n-mu)intfrac12 E$$ because this is an infinitary convex combination of elements of the closed convex set $tfrac12 E.$
          Since $mathcal F(x)toinfty,$ as $xto 1^-$ we have $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in tfrac 12 E$$
          because each $Q_n(mu_n-mu)$ lies in $tfrac12Nmathcal F(x)E$ for sufficiently large $mathcal F(x).$ Summing gives
          $$mu_x-mu=mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^infty x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in E$$
          which is the definition of $mu_x$ converging weakly to $mu.$



          You might find it clearer to do everything in terms of real numbers - just replace $mu_x,mu_n,mu$ by $int f mu_x$ etc, and replace $E$ by the interval $[-epsilon,epsilon].$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex M.
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
            $endgroup$
            – Dap
            2 days ago















          1












          $begingroup$

          Yes, you are on the right track; you just need to apply the definition of weak convergence. You do need $mathcal F(x)toinfty.$



          A sequence of probability measures $nu_n$ converges weakly to $nu$ iff for each bounded continuous $f$ and each $epsilon>0,$ there exists $N$ such that $|int f dnu_n-int f dnu|$ for $n>N.$ We can write this as: $nu_n-nuin E$ for all sufficiently large $n,$ where $E$ is the set of finite signed measures $tau$ with $|int f dtau|leqepsilon.$
          Fix $f$ and $epsilon$ and let $E$ be as I just defined.



          We are given that $mu_n$ converges weakly to $mu.$ Applying the definition of weak convergence with $f$ and $tfrac12epsilon,$ there exists $N$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $mu_n-muintfrac12 E.$ In particular, $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n>Nx^nQ_n(mu_n-mu)intfrac12 E$$ because this is an infinitary convex combination of elements of the closed convex set $tfrac12 E.$
          Since $mathcal F(x)toinfty,$ as $xto 1^-$ we have $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in tfrac 12 E$$
          because each $Q_n(mu_n-mu)$ lies in $tfrac12Nmathcal F(x)E$ for sufficiently large $mathcal F(x).$ Summing gives
          $$mu_x-mu=mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^infty x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in E$$
          which is the definition of $mu_x$ converging weakly to $mu.$



          You might find it clearer to do everything in terms of real numbers - just replace $mu_x,mu_n,mu$ by $int f mu_x$ etc, and replace $E$ by the interval $[-epsilon,epsilon].$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex M.
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
            $endgroup$
            – Dap
            2 days ago













          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Yes, you are on the right track; you just need to apply the definition of weak convergence. You do need $mathcal F(x)toinfty.$



          A sequence of probability measures $nu_n$ converges weakly to $nu$ iff for each bounded continuous $f$ and each $epsilon>0,$ there exists $N$ such that $|int f dnu_n-int f dnu|$ for $n>N.$ We can write this as: $nu_n-nuin E$ for all sufficiently large $n,$ where $E$ is the set of finite signed measures $tau$ with $|int f dtau|leqepsilon.$
          Fix $f$ and $epsilon$ and let $E$ be as I just defined.



          We are given that $mu_n$ converges weakly to $mu.$ Applying the definition of weak convergence with $f$ and $tfrac12epsilon,$ there exists $N$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $mu_n-muintfrac12 E.$ In particular, $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n>Nx^nQ_n(mu_n-mu)intfrac12 E$$ because this is an infinitary convex combination of elements of the closed convex set $tfrac12 E.$
          Since $mathcal F(x)toinfty,$ as $xto 1^-$ we have $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in tfrac 12 E$$
          because each $Q_n(mu_n-mu)$ lies in $tfrac12Nmathcal F(x)E$ for sufficiently large $mathcal F(x).$ Summing gives
          $$mu_x-mu=mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^infty x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in E$$
          which is the definition of $mu_x$ converging weakly to $mu.$



          You might find it clearer to do everything in terms of real numbers - just replace $mu_x,mu_n,mu$ by $int f mu_x$ etc, and replace $E$ by the interval $[-epsilon,epsilon].$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Yes, you are on the right track; you just need to apply the definition of weak convergence. You do need $mathcal F(x)toinfty.$



          A sequence of probability measures $nu_n$ converges weakly to $nu$ iff for each bounded continuous $f$ and each $epsilon>0,$ there exists $N$ such that $|int f dnu_n-int f dnu|$ for $n>N.$ We can write this as: $nu_n-nuin E$ for all sufficiently large $n,$ where $E$ is the set of finite signed measures $tau$ with $|int f dtau|leqepsilon.$
          Fix $f$ and $epsilon$ and let $E$ be as I just defined.



          We are given that $mu_n$ converges weakly to $mu.$ Applying the definition of weak convergence with $f$ and $tfrac12epsilon,$ there exists $N$ such that for all $n>N$ we have $mu_n-muintfrac12 E.$ In particular, $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n>Nx^nQ_n(mu_n-mu)intfrac12 E$$ because this is an infinitary convex combination of elements of the closed convex set $tfrac12 E.$
          Since $mathcal F(x)toinfty,$ as $xto 1^-$ we have $$mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^N x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in tfrac 12 E$$
          because each $Q_n(mu_n-mu)$ lies in $tfrac12Nmathcal F(x)E$ for sufficiently large $mathcal F(x).$ Summing gives
          $$mu_x-mu=mathcal F(x)^-1sum_n=1^infty x^nQ_n(mu_n-mu) in E$$
          which is the definition of $mu_x$ converging weakly to $mu.$



          You might find it clearer to do everything in terms of real numbers - just replace $mu_x,mu_n,mu$ by $int f mu_x$ etc, and replace $E$ by the interval $[-epsilon,epsilon].$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 2 days ago

























          answered 2 days ago









          DapDap

          19.6k842




          19.6k842







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex M.
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
            $endgroup$
            – Dap
            2 days ago












          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
            $endgroup$
            – Alex M.
            2 days ago










          • $begingroup$
            @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
            $endgroup$
            – Dap
            2 days ago







          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
          $endgroup$
          – Alex M.
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          Notice that you haven't used the continuity of $f$ anywhere; the same argument would have worked for the characteristic function of any measurable subset, which shows that one can obtain in fact strong convergence.
          $endgroup$
          – Alex M.
          2 days ago












          $begingroup$
          @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
          $endgroup$
          – Dap
          2 days ago




          $begingroup$
          @AlexM.: that $B$ should have been an $f,$ thanks for noticing
          $endgroup$
          – Dap
          2 days ago

















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          Hidroelektrana Sadržaj Povijest | Podjela hidroelektrana | Snaga dobivena u hidroelektranama | Dijelovi hidroelektrane | Uloga hidroelektrana u suvremenom svijetu | Prednosti hidroelektrana | Nedostaci hidroelektrana | Države s najvećom proizvodnjom hidro-električne energije | Deset najvećih hidroelektrana u svijetu | Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj | Izvori | Poveznice | Vanjske poveznice | Navigacijski izbornikTechnical Report, Version 2Zajedničkom poslužiteljuHidroelektranaHEP Proizvodnja d.o.o. - Hidroelektrane u Hrvatskoj