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Is a rolling $z$-score a good proxy for a derivative?


What is a good measure of “controversy”, given a support score and opposition score?Explanation for the Wilson Score Interval?Calculating z-score for non-normal distributionsMinimum score for winner and maximum score for loser in a round-robin tournament.When do I use a z-score vs a t-score for confidence intervals?R_2 score for non-linear modelsThe Weighted Average to find the meanStandard Score or z-scoreExpanding a probability generating function for the total score of rolling a die r timesDie problem for rolling sided dice













2












$begingroup$


Given a time series $V_t_t=1^n$, where $t mapsto V_t in mathbbR$, I want to have some smoothed notion of the "derivative" of this time series. It was recommended that I look at



$$tildeV_t = fracV_t - text$k$-step moving average of V_ttext$k$-step std dev of $V_t$.$$



The $k$-step moving average of $V_t$ is $frac1k sum_i=0^k-1V_t-i$.



This quantity, empirically, seems to act something like derivative. (For a line it is constant, for a sine curve it is almost a cosine curve, etc.) Can someone explain why, mathematically, this would be a heuristic for a derivative?



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:05










  • $begingroup$
    @JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
    $endgroup$
    – Théophile
    Apr 4 at 20:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:14
















2












$begingroup$


Given a time series $V_t_t=1^n$, where $t mapsto V_t in mathbbR$, I want to have some smoothed notion of the "derivative" of this time series. It was recommended that I look at



$$tildeV_t = fracV_t - text$k$-step moving average of V_ttext$k$-step std dev of $V_t$.$$



The $k$-step moving average of $V_t$ is $frac1k sum_i=0^k-1V_t-i$.



This quantity, empirically, seems to act something like derivative. (For a line it is constant, for a sine curve it is almost a cosine curve, etc.) Can someone explain why, mathematically, this would be a heuristic for a derivative?



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:05










  • $begingroup$
    @JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
    $endgroup$
    – Théophile
    Apr 4 at 20:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:14














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


Given a time series $V_t_t=1^n$, where $t mapsto V_t in mathbbR$, I want to have some smoothed notion of the "derivative" of this time series. It was recommended that I look at



$$tildeV_t = fracV_t - text$k$-step moving average of V_ttext$k$-step std dev of $V_t$.$$



The $k$-step moving average of $V_t$ is $frac1k sum_i=0^k-1V_t-i$.



This quantity, empirically, seems to act something like derivative. (For a line it is constant, for a sine curve it is almost a cosine curve, etc.) Can someone explain why, mathematically, this would be a heuristic for a derivative?



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Given a time series $V_t_t=1^n$, where $t mapsto V_t in mathbbR$, I want to have some smoothed notion of the "derivative" of this time series. It was recommended that I look at



$$tildeV_t = fracV_t - text$k$-step moving average of V_ttext$k$-step std dev of $V_t$.$$



The $k$-step moving average of $V_t$ is $frac1k sum_i=0^k-1V_t-i$.



This quantity, empirically, seems to act something like derivative. (For a line it is constant, for a sine curve it is almost a cosine curve, etc.) Can someone explain why, mathematically, this would be a heuristic for a derivative?



Thanks.







real-analysis statistics discrete-mathematics time-series






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 4 at 19:36









Théophile

20.4k13047




20.4k13047






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asked Apr 4 at 19:02









statsdadstatsdad

111




111




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statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






statsdad is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:05










  • $begingroup$
    @JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
    $endgroup$
    – Théophile
    Apr 4 at 20:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:14

















  • $begingroup$
    Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:05










  • $begingroup$
    @JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
    $endgroup$
    – Théophile
    Apr 4 at 20:11










  • $begingroup$
    @Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
    $endgroup$
    – Jair Taylor
    Apr 4 at 20:14
















$begingroup$
Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
$endgroup$
– Jair Taylor
Apr 4 at 20:05




$begingroup$
Derivatives don't really make sense with discrete time, so it's better to compare it to the differences $V_t - V_t-1$. In both cases you're looking at measures of how quickly $V_t$ is changing relative to the recent past, so you would expect the metrics to have similar properties.
$endgroup$
– Jair Taylor
Apr 4 at 20:05












$begingroup$
@JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
$endgroup$
– Théophile
Apr 4 at 20:11




$begingroup$
@JairTaylor Derivatives do have a discrete analogue, finite differences.
$endgroup$
– Théophile
Apr 4 at 20:11












$begingroup$
@Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
$endgroup$
– Jair Taylor
Apr 4 at 20:14





$begingroup$
@Théophile Sure, you could also compare to finite difference quotients over longer intervals.
$endgroup$
– Jair Taylor
Apr 4 at 20:14











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